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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Anika, a portfolio manager, is closely monitoring the S&P/TSX 60 Index futures contract (SXO) and the underlying S&P/TSX 60 Index (the spot market). With three months until expiration, she observes that the futures price is consistently higher than the spot index level. As the contract approaches its expiration date, what fundamental principle of futures pricing explains the expected change in the relationship between these two prices?
Correct
The relationship between a futures price and the spot price of its underlying asset is fundamentally governed by the cost of carry. The cost of carry represents the net cost of holding the physical asset until the futures contract’s delivery date. It includes expenses such as financing costs and storage fees, less any income generated by the asset, like dividends or interest. The theoretical futures price is calculated by adding the cost of carry to the current spot price. The difference between the futures price and the spot price is known as the basis.
As a futures contract moves closer to its expiration date, the time period over which the carrying costs apply diminishes. For instance, the cost to finance and store an asset for one week is significantly less than for three months. Consequently, the cost of carry component of the futures price steadily declines as expiration approaches. At the precise moment of expiration, the time to delivery becomes zero, and therefore, the cost of carry also becomes zero. At this point, the futures price must equal the spot price. This process, where the basis approaches zero as the contract expires, is called convergence. Convergence is a critical market mechanism that ensures price consistency and prevents risk-free arbitrage opportunities. If the prices did not converge, an arbitrageur could simultaneously buy the cheaper instrument and sell the more expensive one at expiration, locking in a guaranteed profit without risk.
Incorrect
The relationship between a futures price and the spot price of its underlying asset is fundamentally governed by the cost of carry. The cost of carry represents the net cost of holding the physical asset until the futures contract’s delivery date. It includes expenses such as financing costs and storage fees, less any income generated by the asset, like dividends or interest. The theoretical futures price is calculated by adding the cost of carry to the current spot price. The difference between the futures price and the spot price is known as the basis.
As a futures contract moves closer to its expiration date, the time period over which the carrying costs apply diminishes. For instance, the cost to finance and store an asset for one week is significantly less than for three months. Consequently, the cost of carry component of the futures price steadily declines as expiration approaches. At the precise moment of expiration, the time to delivery becomes zero, and therefore, the cost of carry also becomes zero. At this point, the futures price must equal the spot price. This process, where the basis approaches zero as the contract expires, is called convergence. Convergence is a critical market mechanism that ensures price consistency and prevents risk-free arbitrage opportunities. If the prices did not converge, an arbitrageur could simultaneously buy the cheaper instrument and sell the more expensive one at expiration, locking in a guaranteed profit without risk.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Anjali, a portfolio manager for a large Canadian pension fund, is implementing a bearish strategy on ACME Corp. stock, which is currently trading at $48 per share. Believing the stock will not rise significantly in the near term, she establishes a bear call spread by selling 10 ACME July 50 call contracts and simultaneously buying 10 ACME July 55 call contracts. The account is an institutional margin account governed by CIRO regulations. What is the minimum initial margin requirement that must be available in the account for each single spread established?
Correct
\[ (\text{Higher Strike Price} – \text{Lower Strike Price}) \times \text{Number of Shares per Contract} \]
\[ (\$55.00 – \$50.00) \times 100 = \$500.00 \]The transaction described is a bear call spread, which is a type of vertical credit spread. This strategy involves selling a call option with a lower strike price and simultaneously buying a call option with a higher strike price, with both options having the same underlying asset and expiration date. It is considered a defined-risk strategy because the maximum potential loss is capped.
Under the Investment Industry Regulatory Organization of Canada (CIRO) rules, the minimum margin requirement for such a spread is designed to cover this maximum potential loss. The maximum loss on a bear call spread is the difference between the two strike prices, less the net premium received. However, the margin requirement itself is calculated as the difference between the strike prices multiplied by the number of shares controlled by the contract, which is typically 100 for Canadian equity options.
In this scenario, the difference between the strike prices is five dollars. This difference represents the maximum gross risk per share on the position. Therefore, the margin that must be held in the account for each spread is this difference multiplied by one hundred shares. The net premium received when the position is established can be applied to meet this margin requirement, but it does not change the calculation of the requirement itself. This ensures that the account has sufficient equity to cover the potential loss if the underlying stock price rises significantly, causing the spread to move against the investor. This rule provides a standardized way for firms to manage the risk associated with defined-risk option strategies held in client accounts.
Incorrect
\[ (\text{Higher Strike Price} – \text{Lower Strike Price}) \times \text{Number of Shares per Contract} \]
\[ (\$55.00 – \$50.00) \times 100 = \$500.00 \]The transaction described is a bear call spread, which is a type of vertical credit spread. This strategy involves selling a call option with a lower strike price and simultaneously buying a call option with a higher strike price, with both options having the same underlying asset and expiration date. It is considered a defined-risk strategy because the maximum potential loss is capped.
Under the Investment Industry Regulatory Organization of Canada (CIRO) rules, the minimum margin requirement for such a spread is designed to cover this maximum potential loss. The maximum loss on a bear call spread is the difference between the two strike prices, less the net premium received. However, the margin requirement itself is calculated as the difference between the strike prices multiplied by the number of shares controlled by the contract, which is typically 100 for Canadian equity options.
In this scenario, the difference between the strike prices is five dollars. This difference represents the maximum gross risk per share on the position. Therefore, the margin that must be held in the account for each spread is this difference multiplied by one hundred shares. The net premium received when the position is established can be applied to meet this margin requirement, but it does not change the calculation of the requirement itself. This ensures that the account has sufficient equity to cover the potential loss if the underlying stock price rises significantly, causing the spread to move against the investor. This rule provides a standardized way for firms to manage the risk associated with defined-risk option strategies held in client accounts.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Anika, a portfolio manager at a Canadian pension fund, is using S&P/TSX 60 Index Futures (SXO) to hedge a large, diversified equity portfolio. Two days before the futures contract’s expiration, she observes that the SXO futures price is consistently trading at a significant discount to the current S&P/TSX 60 Index level, resulting in a persistent and non-trivial positive basis. Which of the following provides the most sophisticated and accurate explanation for this observed failure of convergence?
Correct
The basis is calculated as the difference between the current spot price and the futures price. In this scenario, let’s assume the S&P/TSX 60 Index (spot price) is at 2,215 and the near-term SXO futures contract price is 2,210.
The basis is calculated as:
\[ \text{Basis} = \text{Spot Price} – \text{Futures Price} \]
\[ \text{Basis} = 2,215 – 2,210 = 5 \]
A basis of 5 indicates the futures price is trading at a discount to the spot index.The principle of convergence dictates that as a futures contract approaches its expiration, the basis should narrow and approach zero. This occurs because the futures contract’s value becomes directly tied to the underlying asset’s spot value, as delivery or cash settlement is imminent. The economic force driving convergence is arbitrage. If a significant basis exists, arbitrageurs will act to exploit the price discrepancy, which in turn forces the prices back into alignment. In the case of a positive basis (futures price is less than spot price), an arbitrageur would simultaneously buy the cheaper futures contract and sell the more expensive underlying asset (or a representative basket of the stocks in the index). This is often called a cash-and-carry arbitrage in reverse. This activity increases demand for the futures, pushing its price up, and increases the supply of the spot assets, pushing their price down, thus causing the basis to shrink. However, this arbitrage is not frictionless. If there are significant impediments, convergence may fail. For a stock index future, the primary impediment is the difficulty and cost of executing the short side of the arbitrage trade, which involves short-selling all the component stocks of the index. This can involve high borrowing costs for certain stocks or an outright inability to borrow them, creating a barrier that prevents arbitrageurs from closing the price gap. Therefore, a persistent basis near expiry suggests that the potential profit from the arbitrage is outweighed by these transaction costs and practical difficulties.
Incorrect
The basis is calculated as the difference between the current spot price and the futures price. In this scenario, let’s assume the S&P/TSX 60 Index (spot price) is at 2,215 and the near-term SXO futures contract price is 2,210.
The basis is calculated as:
\[ \text{Basis} = \text{Spot Price} – \text{Futures Price} \]
\[ \text{Basis} = 2,215 – 2,210 = 5 \]
A basis of 5 indicates the futures price is trading at a discount to the spot index.The principle of convergence dictates that as a futures contract approaches its expiration, the basis should narrow and approach zero. This occurs because the futures contract’s value becomes directly tied to the underlying asset’s spot value, as delivery or cash settlement is imminent. The economic force driving convergence is arbitrage. If a significant basis exists, arbitrageurs will act to exploit the price discrepancy, which in turn forces the prices back into alignment. In the case of a positive basis (futures price is less than spot price), an arbitrageur would simultaneously buy the cheaper futures contract and sell the more expensive underlying asset (or a representative basket of the stocks in the index). This is often called a cash-and-carry arbitrage in reverse. This activity increases demand for the futures, pushing its price up, and increases the supply of the spot assets, pushing their price down, thus causing the basis to shrink. However, this arbitrage is not frictionless. If there are significant impediments, convergence may fail. For a stock index future, the primary impediment is the difficulty and cost of executing the short side of the arbitrage trade, which involves short-selling all the component stocks of the index. This can involve high borrowing costs for certain stocks or an outright inability to borrow them, creating a barrier that prevents arbitrageurs from closing the price gap. Therefore, a persistent basis near expiry suggests that the potential profit from the arbitrage is outweighed by these transaction costs and practical difficulties.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Anika, a new prospective client, submits a completed Option Account Application Form (OAAF) to her Registered Representative. The form indicates she has a high net worth and substantial income from her profession as a surgeon, but also clearly states she has “limited” investment knowledge and a “conservative” risk tolerance. During the account opening discussion, Anika expresses a strong desire to immediately begin writing uncovered call options on a volatile technology stock she inherited, believing it is an easy way to generate extra income. Based on CIRO rules and the principles of client due diligence, what is the most appropriate action for the designated supervisor responsible for final acceptance of this account?
Correct
The correct course of action is for the designated supervisor, such as the Branch Manager or Options Supervisor, to refuse to approve the account for the requested level of trading, specifically uncovered option writing. The core of this decision rests on the fundamental regulatory obligation of suitability. Under the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) rules, a member firm and its registrants must ensure that any recommendation or account approval is suitable for the client based on their specific circumstances. This involves a thorough assessment of the information provided on the Option Account Application Form (OAAF), including the client’s investment knowledge, objectives, time horizon, risk tolerance, financial situation, and age. In this scenario, there is a significant and dangerous conflict between the client’s stated conservative risk tolerance and limited investment knowledge, and their desire to engage in one of the highest-risk option strategies: writing uncovered calls. Writing uncovered calls exposes the investor to theoretically unlimited risk, which is diametrically opposed to a conservative profile. The firm’s gatekeeping responsibility, exercised by the supervisor, is to protect the client and the firm from unsuitable activities. Simply educating the client or having them sign a waiver does not absolve the firm of its suitability obligation. The information on the OAAF clearly indicates that the requested strategy is inappropriate, and therefore, approval for that level of trading must be denied. The firm may offer to approve the account for lower-risk strategies, such as covered call writing or buying options, which would be more aligned with the client’s profile, but approval for uncovered writing is not a responsible option.
Incorrect
The correct course of action is for the designated supervisor, such as the Branch Manager or Options Supervisor, to refuse to approve the account for the requested level of trading, specifically uncovered option writing. The core of this decision rests on the fundamental regulatory obligation of suitability. Under the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) rules, a member firm and its registrants must ensure that any recommendation or account approval is suitable for the client based on their specific circumstances. This involves a thorough assessment of the information provided on the Option Account Application Form (OAAF), including the client’s investment knowledge, objectives, time horizon, risk tolerance, financial situation, and age. In this scenario, there is a significant and dangerous conflict between the client’s stated conservative risk tolerance and limited investment knowledge, and their desire to engage in one of the highest-risk option strategies: writing uncovered calls. Writing uncovered calls exposes the investor to theoretically unlimited risk, which is diametrically opposed to a conservative profile. The firm’s gatekeeping responsibility, exercised by the supervisor, is to protect the client and the firm from unsuitable activities. Simply educating the client or having them sign a waiver does not absolve the firm of its suitability obligation. The information on the OAAF clearly indicates that the requested strategy is inappropriate, and therefore, approval for that level of trading must be denied. The firm may offer to approve the account for lower-risk strategies, such as covered call writing or buying options, which would be more aligned with the client’s profile, but approval for uncovered writing is not a responsible option.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
An assessment of a registrant’s obligations under CIRO’s Registrant Standards of Conduct reveals a primary duty when a client’s expressed trading desires conflict with their documented risk profile. Consider the following situation: Amir is a registrant whose client, Ms. Dubois, is a retired individual with a NAAF that clearly indicates a conservative risk tolerance, limited investment knowledge, and a primary objective of capital preservation. After attending an online seminar, Ms. Dubois contacts Amir and insists on placing an order to write a large number of uncovered call options on a highly volatile technology stock, stating she believes it is a low-effort way to generate income. What is Amir’s most critical professional obligation in this scenario?
Correct
The registrant’s fundamental obligation under the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) rules is to ensure that all recommendations and accepted orders are suitable for the client. This suitability determination is based on the client’s information collected through the Know Your Client (KYC) process, which includes their financial situation, investment knowledge, investment objectives, and risk tolerance, all documented on the New Account Application Form (NAAF). When a client’s instruction directly contradicts their established profile, the registrant’s duty to act in the client’s best interest and ensure suitability supersedes the client’s request. Writing uncovered calls is an extremely high-risk strategy with the potential for unlimited losses, making it fundamentally unsuitable for a client with a documented conservative risk tolerance, limited investment knowledge, and reliance on retirement savings. Simply obtaining a waiver or documenting the client’s insistence does not absolve the registrant of their professional and regulatory responsibility. The correct and required course of action is to refuse to accept the order. The registrant must then clearly explain to the client why the proposed strategy is unsuitable, referencing the client’s own stated objectives and risk profile. This conversation and the refusal must be thoroughly documented. This upholds the gatekeeper function of the registrant, protecting the client from potentially catastrophic financial decisions that are inconsistent with their profile.
Incorrect
The registrant’s fundamental obligation under the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) rules is to ensure that all recommendations and accepted orders are suitable for the client. This suitability determination is based on the client’s information collected through the Know Your Client (KYC) process, which includes their financial situation, investment knowledge, investment objectives, and risk tolerance, all documented on the New Account Application Form (NAAF). When a client’s instruction directly contradicts their established profile, the registrant’s duty to act in the client’s best interest and ensure suitability supersedes the client’s request. Writing uncovered calls is an extremely high-risk strategy with the potential for unlimited losses, making it fundamentally unsuitable for a client with a documented conservative risk tolerance, limited investment knowledge, and reliance on retirement savings. Simply obtaining a waiver or documenting the client’s insistence does not absolve the registrant of their professional and regulatory responsibility. The correct and required course of action is to refuse to accept the order. The registrant must then clearly explain to the client why the proposed strategy is unsuitable, referencing the client’s own stated objectives and risk profile. This conversation and the refusal must be thoroughly documented. This upholds the gatekeeper function of the registrant, protecting the client from potentially catastrophic financial decisions that are inconsistent with their profile.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
An assessment of Anika’s investment portfolio reveals she holds 10 standard call option contracts on MapleLeaf Innovations Inc. (MII). Each contract has a strike price of $50.00 and represents 100 shares of MII. Subsequently, MII’s board of directors approves and executes a 5-for-2 stock split. In accordance with the rules of the Bourse de Montréal and the Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC), how will the terms of each of Anika’s individual option contracts be adjusted?
Correct
The calculation to determine the new contract terms is as follows.
First, calculate the new number of shares per contract:
\[ \text{New Shares per Contract} = \text{Old Shares per Contract} \times \left( \frac{\text{New Shares from Split}}{\text{Old Shares from Split}} \right) \]
\[ \text{New Shares per Contract} = 100 \times \left( \frac{5}{2} \right) = 250 \text{ shares} \]
Next, calculate the new strike price:
\[ \text{New Strike Price} = \text{Old Strike Price} \times \left( \frac{\text{Old Shares from Split}}{\text{New Shares from Split}} \right) \]
\[ \text{New Strike Price} = \$50.00 \times \left( \frac{2}{5} \right) = \$20.00 \]
Therefore, each of the 10 contracts will now represent 250 shares with a strike price of $20.00.When a company executes a stock split, the Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC) adjusts the terms of all outstanding option contracts on that stock. The fundamental principle behind this adjustment is to ensure that the aggregate value of the position remains unchanged for both the option holder and the writer. The holder’s overall economic position should not be advantaged or disadvantaged solely due to the corporate action. For a standard 100-share option contract, the adjustment involves modifying the number of shares the contract represents and the strike price. The number of contracts an investor holds does not change. The number of underlying shares per contract is multiplied by the split ratio, while the strike price is divided by the same ratio. This inverse adjustment maintains the total notional value of the underlying shares at the strike price. For instance, the pre-split value at strike was \(100 \times \$50.00 = \$5,000\). The post-split value at strike is \(250 \times \$20.00 = \$5,000\). The option symbol is also typically changed to indicate that it is now a non-standard contract.
Incorrect
The calculation to determine the new contract terms is as follows.
First, calculate the new number of shares per contract:
\[ \text{New Shares per Contract} = \text{Old Shares per Contract} \times \left( \frac{\text{New Shares from Split}}{\text{Old Shares from Split}} \right) \]
\[ \text{New Shares per Contract} = 100 \times \left( \frac{5}{2} \right) = 250 \text{ shares} \]
Next, calculate the new strike price:
\[ \text{New Strike Price} = \text{Old Strike Price} \times \left( \frac{\text{Old Shares from Split}}{\text{New Shares from Split}} \right) \]
\[ \text{New Strike Price} = \$50.00 \times \left( \frac{2}{5} \right) = \$20.00 \]
Therefore, each of the 10 contracts will now represent 250 shares with a strike price of $20.00.When a company executes a stock split, the Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC) adjusts the terms of all outstanding option contracts on that stock. The fundamental principle behind this adjustment is to ensure that the aggregate value of the position remains unchanged for both the option holder and the writer. The holder’s overall economic position should not be advantaged or disadvantaged solely due to the corporate action. For a standard 100-share option contract, the adjustment involves modifying the number of shares the contract represents and the strike price. The number of contracts an investor holds does not change. The number of underlying shares per contract is multiplied by the split ratio, while the strike price is divided by the same ratio. This inverse adjustment maintains the total notional value of the underlying shares at the strike price. For instance, the pre-split value at strike was \(100 \times \$50.00 = \$5,000\). The post-split value at strike is \(250 \times \$20.00 = \$5,000\). The option symbol is also typically changed to indicate that it is now a non-standard contract.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Anika, an experienced options trader, establishes a new position in her margin account held at a CIRO member firm. She believes that the stock of ABC Corporation, currently trading at $48 per share, will not rise significantly in the near term. She implements a bear call spread by executing the following trades simultaneously:
– Sells 10 ABC July 50 call contracts at a premium of $4.00 per share.
– Buys 10 ABC July 55 call contracts at a premium of $1.50 per share.
In accordance with CIRO regulations for this specific options strategy, what is the minimum margin that must be held in Anika’s account for this position at the time of the transaction?Correct
The calculation for the minimum margin requirement on this position is based on the CIRO rules for a short call spread, also known as a bear call spread or a credit call spread. This strategy involves selling a call option with a lower strike price and simultaneously buying a call option with a higher strike price, both on the same underlying and with the same expiration date. The strategy has a defined maximum risk, and the margin requirement reflects this.
First, identify the net premium received from establishing the position.
Premium received from selling 10 ABC July 50 calls: \(10 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} \times \$4.00/\text{share} = \$4,000\)
Premium paid for buying 10 ABC July 55 calls: \(10 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} \times \$1.50/\text{share} = \$1,500\)
Net Credit Received: \(\$4,000 – \$1,500 = \$2,500\)Next, apply the CIRO margin formula for a credit spread. The margin is equal to the maximum potential loss on the position. The maximum loss is the difference between the strike prices of the two options, less the net credit received.
Maximum loss per share = (Higher Strike Price – Lower Strike Price) – Net Credit per share
Net credit per share = \(\$4.00 – \$1.50 = \$2.50\)
Maximum loss per share = \((\$55 – \$50) – \$2.50 = \$5.00 – \$2.50 = \$2.50\)Total Margin Requirement = Maximum loss per share \(\times\) Total number of shares
Total Margin Requirement = \(\$2.50 \times (10 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract}) = \$2.50 \times 1,000 = \$2,500\)Alternatively, the formula can be expressed as the difference in the aggregate strike values minus the total net credit received.
Difference in aggregate strike values = \((\$55 – \$50) \times 1,000 \text{ shares} = \$5,000\)
Total Margin Requirement = Difference in aggregate strike values – Total Net Credit Received
Total Margin Requirement = \(\$5,000 – \$2,500 = \$2,500\)The logic behind this rule is that the long call position protects the short call position. The maximum possible loss is capped at the difference between the strikes minus the premium collected. Therefore, the client must have sufficient funds in the account to cover this maximum potential loss. The initial net credit received can be used to offset a portion of this margin requirement, but the total equity required to be held against the position is this calculated amount.
Incorrect
The calculation for the minimum margin requirement on this position is based on the CIRO rules for a short call spread, also known as a bear call spread or a credit call spread. This strategy involves selling a call option with a lower strike price and simultaneously buying a call option with a higher strike price, both on the same underlying and with the same expiration date. The strategy has a defined maximum risk, and the margin requirement reflects this.
First, identify the net premium received from establishing the position.
Premium received from selling 10 ABC July 50 calls: \(10 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} \times \$4.00/\text{share} = \$4,000\)
Premium paid for buying 10 ABC July 55 calls: \(10 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} \times \$1.50/\text{share} = \$1,500\)
Net Credit Received: \(\$4,000 – \$1,500 = \$2,500\)Next, apply the CIRO margin formula for a credit spread. The margin is equal to the maximum potential loss on the position. The maximum loss is the difference between the strike prices of the two options, less the net credit received.
Maximum loss per share = (Higher Strike Price – Lower Strike Price) – Net Credit per share
Net credit per share = \(\$4.00 – \$1.50 = \$2.50\)
Maximum loss per share = \((\$55 – \$50) – \$2.50 = \$5.00 – \$2.50 = \$2.50\)Total Margin Requirement = Maximum loss per share \(\times\) Total number of shares
Total Margin Requirement = \(\$2.50 \times (10 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract}) = \$2.50 \times 1,000 = \$2,500\)Alternatively, the formula can be expressed as the difference in the aggregate strike values minus the total net credit received.
Difference in aggregate strike values = \((\$55 – \$50) \times 1,000 \text{ shares} = \$5,000\)
Total Margin Requirement = Difference in aggregate strike values – Total Net Credit Received
Total Margin Requirement = \(\$5,000 – \$2,500 = \$2,500\)The logic behind this rule is that the long call position protects the short call position. The maximum possible loss is capped at the difference between the strikes minus the premium collected. Therefore, the client must have sufficient funds in the account to cover this maximum potential loss. The initial net credit received can be used to offset a portion of this margin requirement, but the total equity required to be held against the position is this calculated amount.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
An assessment of Anika’s derivatives portfolio reveals she holds 10 standard call option contracts on the stock of Quantum Dynamics Inc. (QDI). Each contract has a strike price of \(\$50\) and is set to expire in January. Subsequently, QDI’s board of directors approves and executes a 5-for-2 forward stock split. In accordance with the rules of the Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC), what will be the adjusted terms for each of Anika’s 10 option contracts after the split takes effect?
Correct
The adjustment for a 5-for-2 stock split is calculated as follows.
First, determine the adjustment factor for the number of shares. The split is 5 new shares for every 2 old shares, so the factor is \(\frac{5}{2}\).
New number of shares per contract = Original shares per contract × Adjustment factor
New number of shares per contract = \(100 \times \frac{5}{2} = 250\) shares.Second, determine the adjustment factor for the strike price. This is the inverse of the share adjustment factor, which is \(\frac{2}{5}\).
New strike price = Original strike price × Inverse adjustment factor
New strike price = \(\$50 \times \frac{2}{5} = \$20\).The aggregate exercise value of the contract remains unchanged:
Original aggregate value = \(100 \text{ shares} \times \$50/\text{share} = \$5,000\)
Adjusted aggregate value = \(250 \text{ shares} \times \$20/\text{share} = \$5,000\)When a company executes a stock split, the Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC) adjusts the terms of any outstanding listed option contracts to ensure that the economic position of the option holder and writer remains unchanged. The fundamental principle guiding this adjustment is that the total value of the underlying interest covered by one contract must be the same immediately before and after the corporate action. For a standard equity option contract, which initially covers 100 shares, a stock split will result in adjustments to both the number of shares the contract delivers and the strike price. In the case of a 5-for-2 split, for every two shares an investor previously held, they now hold five. To reflect this, the number of shares covered by the option contract is multiplied by the split ratio of 5/2. Consequently, the strike price must be adjusted in the opposite direction by multiplying it by the inverse ratio of 2/5. This reciprocal adjustment ensures the aggregate exercise price of the contract is preserved. The option contract becomes a non-standard contract, but its symbol and expiration date are typically not altered.
Incorrect
The adjustment for a 5-for-2 stock split is calculated as follows.
First, determine the adjustment factor for the number of shares. The split is 5 new shares for every 2 old shares, so the factor is \(\frac{5}{2}\).
New number of shares per contract = Original shares per contract × Adjustment factor
New number of shares per contract = \(100 \times \frac{5}{2} = 250\) shares.Second, determine the adjustment factor for the strike price. This is the inverse of the share adjustment factor, which is \(\frac{2}{5}\).
New strike price = Original strike price × Inverse adjustment factor
New strike price = \(\$50 \times \frac{2}{5} = \$20\).The aggregate exercise value of the contract remains unchanged:
Original aggregate value = \(100 \text{ shares} \times \$50/\text{share} = \$5,000\)
Adjusted aggregate value = \(250 \text{ shares} \times \$20/\text{share} = \$5,000\)When a company executes a stock split, the Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC) adjusts the terms of any outstanding listed option contracts to ensure that the economic position of the option holder and writer remains unchanged. The fundamental principle guiding this adjustment is that the total value of the underlying interest covered by one contract must be the same immediately before and after the corporate action. For a standard equity option contract, which initially covers 100 shares, a stock split will result in adjustments to both the number of shares the contract delivers and the strike price. In the case of a 5-for-2 split, for every two shares an investor previously held, they now hold five. To reflect this, the number of shares covered by the option contract is multiplied by the split ratio of 5/2. Consequently, the strike price must be adjusted in the opposite direction by multiplying it by the inverse ratio of 2/5. This reciprocal adjustment ensures the aggregate exercise price of the contract is preserved. The option contract becomes a non-standard contract, but its symbol and expiration date are typically not altered.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Anika maintains an options account with a CIRO-regulated dealer. She has written 10 uncovered call option contracts on a volatile tech stock. Following a surprise positive earnings announcement, the stock’s price increases dramatically, causing a significant margin deficiency in her account. The dealer issues a margin call, but Anika fails to deposit the required funds by the specified deadline. According to CIRO rules and standard industry practice, what is the most appropriate and immediate action the dealer must take to rectify the situation?
Correct
The scenario involves a margin call on a short uncovered call position. First, we calculate the change in the margin requirement.
Initial Position:
Anika writes 10 uncovered call contracts on ZYX Corp.
Strike Price = $70
Underlying Market Price = $68
Premium Received = $4 per share
Total Premium = \(10 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} \times \$4/\text{share} = \$4,000\)
The option is $2 out-of-the-money.Using a standard CIRO margin formula for an uncovered equity call, the initial margin is the greater of several calculations. A common formula is: Premium Received + (Percentage of Underlying Market Value) – Out-of-the-Money Amount. Assuming a 20% factor:
Initial Margin Requirement = \(\$4,000 + (0.20 \times 10 \times 100 \times \$68) – (10 \times 100 \times \$2)\)
Initial Margin Requirement = \(\$4,000 + \$13,600 – \$2,000 = \$15,600\)Market Movement:
The underlying stock price (ZYX) rallies to $85.
The option is now $15 in-the-money (\(\$85 – \$70\)).The margin formula for an in-the-money option adjusts. The new requirement is: Premium Received + (Percentage of Underlying Market Value) + In-the-Money Amount.
New Margin Requirement = \(\$4,000 + (0.20 \times 10 \times 100 \times \$85) + (10 \times 100 \times \$15)\)
New Margin Requirement = \(\$4,000 + \$17,000 + \$15,000 = \$36,000\)Margin Call Calculation:
Margin Deficiency = New Requirement – Initial Margin Posted
Margin Deficiency = \(\$36,000 – \$15,600 = \$20,400\)
A margin call for $20,400 is issued.When a client fails to meet a margin call by the deadline, the dealer member firm, under CIRO regulations, has the right and the obligation to act to eliminate the margin deficiency and protect itself from further risk. The client grants the firm this right in the Derivatives Trading Agreement signed when the account was opened. The primary risk in this scenario comes from the short uncovered call position, which has theoretically unlimited loss potential as the underlying stock price rises. The most direct and appropriate action is to eliminate the source of the risk. This is accomplished by liquidating the position that is causing the margin deficiency. The firm would enter a buy-to-close order for the same number of contracts the client is short. This action, known as a “buy-in,” closes the client’s position and removes the associated ongoing margin requirement and risk exposure for the firm. While the firm has the right to liquidate other securities to meet the call, the standard and most targeted procedure is to close out the specific position creating the unacceptable risk. Delaying action or restructuring the client’s portfolio into a different strategy is not the standard protocol, as it may not resolve the immediate risk exposure in a timely and definitive manner as required.
Incorrect
The scenario involves a margin call on a short uncovered call position. First, we calculate the change in the margin requirement.
Initial Position:
Anika writes 10 uncovered call contracts on ZYX Corp.
Strike Price = $70
Underlying Market Price = $68
Premium Received = $4 per share
Total Premium = \(10 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} \times \$4/\text{share} = \$4,000\)
The option is $2 out-of-the-money.Using a standard CIRO margin formula for an uncovered equity call, the initial margin is the greater of several calculations. A common formula is: Premium Received + (Percentage of Underlying Market Value) – Out-of-the-Money Amount. Assuming a 20% factor:
Initial Margin Requirement = \(\$4,000 + (0.20 \times 10 \times 100 \times \$68) – (10 \times 100 \times \$2)\)
Initial Margin Requirement = \(\$4,000 + \$13,600 – \$2,000 = \$15,600\)Market Movement:
The underlying stock price (ZYX) rallies to $85.
The option is now $15 in-the-money (\(\$85 – \$70\)).The margin formula for an in-the-money option adjusts. The new requirement is: Premium Received + (Percentage of Underlying Market Value) + In-the-Money Amount.
New Margin Requirement = \(\$4,000 + (0.20 \times 10 \times 100 \times \$85) + (10 \times 100 \times \$15)\)
New Margin Requirement = \(\$4,000 + \$17,000 + \$15,000 = \$36,000\)Margin Call Calculation:
Margin Deficiency = New Requirement – Initial Margin Posted
Margin Deficiency = \(\$36,000 – \$15,600 = \$20,400\)
A margin call for $20,400 is issued.When a client fails to meet a margin call by the deadline, the dealer member firm, under CIRO regulations, has the right and the obligation to act to eliminate the margin deficiency and protect itself from further risk. The client grants the firm this right in the Derivatives Trading Agreement signed when the account was opened. The primary risk in this scenario comes from the short uncovered call position, which has theoretically unlimited loss potential as the underlying stock price rises. The most direct and appropriate action is to eliminate the source of the risk. This is accomplished by liquidating the position that is causing the margin deficiency. The firm would enter a buy-to-close order for the same number of contracts the client is short. This action, known as a “buy-in,” closes the client’s position and removes the associated ongoing margin requirement and risk exposure for the firm. While the firm has the right to liquidate other securities to meet the call, the standard and most targeted procedure is to close out the specific position creating the unacceptable risk. Delaying action or restructuring the client’s portfolio into a different strategy is not the standard protocol, as it may not resolve the immediate risk exposure in a timely and definitive manner as required.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Anika, a portfolio manager, holds a concentrated position of 50,000 shares of Quantum Dynamics Inc. (QDI). While she is bullish on the long-term prospects of QDI, she is concerned about potential market volatility in the coming month and wishes to insulate her portfolio’s value from small, adverse price fluctuations without liquidating her shares. To accomplish this, she decides to establish a delta-neutral position using exchange-traded options. If the at-the-money QDI call options currently have a delta of approximately \(+0.50\), which of the following transactions should Anika execute to best achieve her objective?
Correct
The calculation to determine the correct transaction begins with establishing the current delta of the portfolio. A long position in a stock has a delta of \(+1\). Therefore, the portfolio’s initial delta is the number of shares multiplied by the delta per share.
Initial Portfolio Delta = \(50,000 \text{ shares} \times (+1) = +50,000\).To achieve a delta-neutral position, the manager must add a position with a total delta that precisely offsets the initial delta. The target delta for the new position is therefore \(-50,000\).
The available instrument is a call option with a delta of \(+0.50\). When an investor sells or writes an option, they take on a position with the opposite sign of the option’s delta. Therefore, selling one of these call options creates a position with a delta of \(-0.50\) for each share equivalent.
Since one standard exchange-traded option contract in Canada represents 100 shares of the underlying stock, the delta for selling one contract is calculated as follows:
Delta per short call contract = \(\text{Delta per share} \times (-1) \times \text{shares per contract}\)
Delta per short call contract = \(0.50 \times (-1) \times 100 = -50\).To find the number of contracts that must be sold to achieve the target delta of \(-50,000\), we divide the target delta by the delta per short contract:
Number of contracts to sell = \(\frac{\text{Target Delta}}{\text{Delta per short contract}}\)
Number of contracts to sell = \(\frac{-50,000}{-50} = 1,000\) contracts.By selling 1,000 of these call option contracts, the manager introduces a position with a delta of \(-50,000\) into the portfolio. This new position’s delta perfectly cancels out the \(+50,000\) delta of the long stock holding, resulting in a total portfolio delta of zero. A delta-neutral portfolio is, in theory, hedged against small, incremental price movements in the underlying asset. This strategy allows the manager to protect the portfolio’s value from minor fluctuations without having to liquidate the core stock position, aligning with the goal of maintaining a long-term holding while managing short-term risk.
Incorrect
The calculation to determine the correct transaction begins with establishing the current delta of the portfolio. A long position in a stock has a delta of \(+1\). Therefore, the portfolio’s initial delta is the number of shares multiplied by the delta per share.
Initial Portfolio Delta = \(50,000 \text{ shares} \times (+1) = +50,000\).To achieve a delta-neutral position, the manager must add a position with a total delta that precisely offsets the initial delta. The target delta for the new position is therefore \(-50,000\).
The available instrument is a call option with a delta of \(+0.50\). When an investor sells or writes an option, they take on a position with the opposite sign of the option’s delta. Therefore, selling one of these call options creates a position with a delta of \(-0.50\) for each share equivalent.
Since one standard exchange-traded option contract in Canada represents 100 shares of the underlying stock, the delta for selling one contract is calculated as follows:
Delta per short call contract = \(\text{Delta per share} \times (-1) \times \text{shares per contract}\)
Delta per short call contract = \(0.50 \times (-1) \times 100 = -50\).To find the number of contracts that must be sold to achieve the target delta of \(-50,000\), we divide the target delta by the delta per short contract:
Number of contracts to sell = \(\frac{\text{Target Delta}}{\text{Delta per short contract}}\)
Number of contracts to sell = \(\frac{-50,000}{-50} = 1,000\) contracts.By selling 1,000 of these call option contracts, the manager introduces a position with a delta of \(-50,000\) into the portfolio. This new position’s delta perfectly cancels out the \(+50,000\) delta of the long stock holding, resulting in a total portfolio delta of zero. A delta-neutral portfolio is, in theory, hedged against small, incremental price movements in the underlying asset. This strategy allows the manager to protect the portfolio’s value from minor fluctuations without having to liquidate the core stock position, aligning with the goal of maintaining a long-term holding while managing short-term risk.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
The following case demonstrates the impact of a corporate action on listed options. Amara holds a position of 5 long call option contracts on Quantum Dynamics Corp. (QDC). Each standard contract has a strike price of $50.00. QDC then announces a rights issue, granting shareholders the right to purchase one new share for $36.00 for every four shares they currently own. In accordance with the rules of the Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC), how will the terms of each of Amara’s 5 option contracts be adjusted on the ex-rights date?
Correct
The calculation determines the new terms of the option contract after the rights issue.
First, determine the new number of shares the contract will control. The rights issue is 1 new share for every 4 shares held. A standard option contract controls 100 shares. Therefore, the rights attached to these 100 shares allow for the purchase of \(100 \div 4 = 25\) new shares. The adjusted contract will now represent the original 100 shares plus the 25 new shares, for a total of \(100 + 25 = 125\) shares.Second, determine the new strike price. The principle of adjustment is to keep the aggregate exercise cost of the contract constant. The original aggregate exercise cost was the number of shares multiplied by the strike price: \(100 \text{ shares} \times \$50.00/\text{share} = \$5,000\). This total cost must remain the same for the adjusted contract. To find the new strike price, divide the original aggregate exercise cost by the new number of shares: \(\text{New Strike Price} = \frac{\$5,000}{125 \text{ shares}} = \$40.00\).
Therefore, each adjusted option contract will control 125 shares with a new strike price of $40.00.The fundamental purpose of contract adjustments for corporate actions like rights issues is to maintain the economic integrity of the option contract for both the buyer and the writer. A rights issue has a dilutive effect on the stock’s price because it allows existing shareholders to buy new shares at a price below the current market value. Without an adjustment, the call option holder would be unfairly disadvantaged as the underlying stock price would drop on the ex-rights date for reasons unrelated to market forces. The Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC) is responsible for determining and communicating these adjustments. The adjustment ensures that the total value an option holder would pay to exercise their right and acquire the underlying asset remains the same as it was before the corporate action. The number of shares deliverable under the contract is increased to reflect the new shares from the rights issue, and the strike price is decreased proportionally to neutralize the financial impact of the change. The option symbol is also typically changed to indicate that it has non-standard terms.
Incorrect
The calculation determines the new terms of the option contract after the rights issue.
First, determine the new number of shares the contract will control. The rights issue is 1 new share for every 4 shares held. A standard option contract controls 100 shares. Therefore, the rights attached to these 100 shares allow for the purchase of \(100 \div 4 = 25\) new shares. The adjusted contract will now represent the original 100 shares plus the 25 new shares, for a total of \(100 + 25 = 125\) shares.Second, determine the new strike price. The principle of adjustment is to keep the aggregate exercise cost of the contract constant. The original aggregate exercise cost was the number of shares multiplied by the strike price: \(100 \text{ shares} \times \$50.00/\text{share} = \$5,000\). This total cost must remain the same for the adjusted contract. To find the new strike price, divide the original aggregate exercise cost by the new number of shares: \(\text{New Strike Price} = \frac{\$5,000}{125 \text{ shares}} = \$40.00\).
Therefore, each adjusted option contract will control 125 shares with a new strike price of $40.00.The fundamental purpose of contract adjustments for corporate actions like rights issues is to maintain the economic integrity of the option contract for both the buyer and the writer. A rights issue has a dilutive effect on the stock’s price because it allows existing shareholders to buy new shares at a price below the current market value. Without an adjustment, the call option holder would be unfairly disadvantaged as the underlying stock price would drop on the ex-rights date for reasons unrelated to market forces. The Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC) is responsible for determining and communicating these adjustments. The adjustment ensures that the total value an option holder would pay to exercise their right and acquire the underlying asset remains the same as it was before the corporate action. The number of shares deliverable under the contract is increased to reflect the new shares from the rights issue, and the strike price is decreased proportionally to neutralize the financial impact of the change. The option symbol is also typically changed to indicate that it has non-standard terms.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Assessment of a client’s trading account at a CIRO member firm reveals a critical situation. The client, Antoine, holds several uncovered short call option positions on a highly volatile stock. Following an unexpected corporate announcement, the stock’s price increases dramatically, causing the equity in Antoine’s account to fall far below the minimum margin requirement. The firm issues a substantial margin call. If Antoine fails to deposit the required funds promptly, what is the firm’s primary obligation and right under standard margin agreements and CIRO rules?
Correct
When a client’s account falls below the minimum margin requirement, the investment firm must issue a margin call. The client is then required to deposit additional funds or marginable securities to bring the account’s equity back up to the required level. This process is critical for the firm to mitigate its credit risk, as the firm is ultimately responsible for the client’s losses to the clearing corporation. The client agrees to these terms when they sign the margin account agreement. If the client fails to meet the margin call within the specified, and typically very short, timeframe, the firm has the legal right and regulatory obligation to take unilateral action. This action involves liquidating positions in the client’s account to cover the deficit and bring the account back into compliance. The firm does not need the client’s permission for which specific securities to sell; its priority is to reduce the risk exposure as quickly and efficiently as possible. This right to liquidate is a cornerstone of margin trading rules, designed to protect the firm from a client’s default and, by extension, maintain the stability of the financial system by ensuring obligations are met. Waiting for client instructions or attempting other measures would expose the firm to further market risk, which is contrary to the principles of prudent risk management and regulatory requirements set by bodies like the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO).
Incorrect
When a client’s account falls below the minimum margin requirement, the investment firm must issue a margin call. The client is then required to deposit additional funds or marginable securities to bring the account’s equity back up to the required level. This process is critical for the firm to mitigate its credit risk, as the firm is ultimately responsible for the client’s losses to the clearing corporation. The client agrees to these terms when they sign the margin account agreement. If the client fails to meet the margin call within the specified, and typically very short, timeframe, the firm has the legal right and regulatory obligation to take unilateral action. This action involves liquidating positions in the client’s account to cover the deficit and bring the account back into compliance. The firm does not need the client’s permission for which specific securities to sell; its priority is to reduce the risk exposure as quickly and efficiently as possible. This right to liquidate is a cornerstone of margin trading rules, designed to protect the firm from a client’s default and, by extension, maintain the stability of the financial system by ensuring obligations are met. Waiting for client instructions or attempting other measures would expose the firm to further market risk, which is contrary to the principles of prudent risk management and regulatory requirements set by bodies like the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO).
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
The board of directors of Boreal Robotics Corp. (BRC), a company whose stock is listed on the TSX, has approved two significant corporate actions to be effective on the same date: a 1-for-5 reverse stock split and a special cash dividend of $1.50 per pre-split share. An investor holds a standard BRC JUL 5 Call option contract. Considering the standard adjustment procedures followed by the Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC), what will be the new terms of this option contract after both corporate actions are applied?
Correct
The calculation to determine the adjusted option contract terms involves two steps: adjusting for the reverse stock split and then adjusting for the special cash dividend. The Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC) performs these adjustments to ensure that the economic value of the contract remains neutral for both the holder and the writer.
First, we adjust for the 1-for-5 reverse stock split.
The original contract controlled 100 shares. After the split, the number of shares is reduced:
\[ \text{New number of shares} = \frac{\text{Original shares}}{\text{Split ratio}} = \frac{100}{5} = 20 \text{ shares} \]
To keep the total value constant, the strike price is adjusted upwards by the split factor:
\[ \text{Split-adjusted strike price} = \text{Original strike price} \times \text{Split ratio} = \$5.00 \times 5 = \$25.00 \]
At this point, the contract is for 20 shares with a strike price of $25.00.Second, we adjust for the special cash dividend. Unlike regular dividends, special dividends trigger a contract adjustment. The dividend is $1.50 per pre-split share. The total cash value of the dividend for the original 100 shares is:
\[ \text{Total dividend value} = 100 \text{ shares} \times \$1.50/\text{share} = \$150.00 \]
This total cash amount is subtracted from the aggregate exercise price of the split-adjusted contract. The split-adjusted aggregate exercise price was \(20 \text{ shares} \times \$25.00/\text{share} = \$500.00\).
\[ \text{New aggregate exercise price} = \$500.00 – \$150.00 = \$350.00 \]
The final adjusted strike price is this new aggregate exercise price divided by the new number of shares:
\[ \text{Final adjusted strike price} = \frac{\$350.00}{20 \text{ shares}} = \$17.50 \]The fundamental principle guiding the CDCC’s adjustment process for corporate actions like stock splits and special dividends is the preservation of the option’s economic value. The goal is to ensure that neither the option buyer nor the writer is financially advantaged or disadvantaged by the corporate action itself. For the reverse split, the number of underlying shares in the contract is reduced, and to offset this, the strike price is increased proportionally. This maintains the total value that would be exchanged upon exercise. For the special cash dividend, the adjustment is necessary because such a distribution reduces the company’s assets and, consequently, its share price. Without an adjustment, the option holder would be unfairly penalized. The strike price is therefore reduced by the per-share value of the special dividend, calculated over the new, post-split number of shares. This reduction in the strike price precisely counteracts the drop in the stock price caused by the dividend payment, leaving the option’s intrinsic value and overall position unchanged from what it would have been without the dividend. The contract symbol is also typically amended to denote its non-standard terms.
Incorrect
The calculation to determine the adjusted option contract terms involves two steps: adjusting for the reverse stock split and then adjusting for the special cash dividend. The Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC) performs these adjustments to ensure that the economic value of the contract remains neutral for both the holder and the writer.
First, we adjust for the 1-for-5 reverse stock split.
The original contract controlled 100 shares. After the split, the number of shares is reduced:
\[ \text{New number of shares} = \frac{\text{Original shares}}{\text{Split ratio}} = \frac{100}{5} = 20 \text{ shares} \]
To keep the total value constant, the strike price is adjusted upwards by the split factor:
\[ \text{Split-adjusted strike price} = \text{Original strike price} \times \text{Split ratio} = \$5.00 \times 5 = \$25.00 \]
At this point, the contract is for 20 shares with a strike price of $25.00.Second, we adjust for the special cash dividend. Unlike regular dividends, special dividends trigger a contract adjustment. The dividend is $1.50 per pre-split share. The total cash value of the dividend for the original 100 shares is:
\[ \text{Total dividend value} = 100 \text{ shares} \times \$1.50/\text{share} = \$150.00 \]
This total cash amount is subtracted from the aggregate exercise price of the split-adjusted contract. The split-adjusted aggregate exercise price was \(20 \text{ shares} \times \$25.00/\text{share} = \$500.00\).
\[ \text{New aggregate exercise price} = \$500.00 – \$150.00 = \$350.00 \]
The final adjusted strike price is this new aggregate exercise price divided by the new number of shares:
\[ \text{Final adjusted strike price} = \frac{\$350.00}{20 \text{ shares}} = \$17.50 \]The fundamental principle guiding the CDCC’s adjustment process for corporate actions like stock splits and special dividends is the preservation of the option’s economic value. The goal is to ensure that neither the option buyer nor the writer is financially advantaged or disadvantaged by the corporate action itself. For the reverse split, the number of underlying shares in the contract is reduced, and to offset this, the strike price is increased proportionally. This maintains the total value that would be exchanged upon exercise. For the special cash dividend, the adjustment is necessary because such a distribution reduces the company’s assets and, consequently, its share price. Without an adjustment, the option holder would be unfairly penalized. The strike price is therefore reduced by the per-share value of the special dividend, calculated over the new, post-split number of shares. This reduction in the strike price precisely counteracts the drop in the stock price caused by the dividend payment, leaving the option’s intrinsic value and overall position unchanged from what it would have been without the dividend. The contract symbol is also typically amended to denote its non-standard terms.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Anika, a portfolio manager for a large institutional client, is aggressively building a substantial long call position on the shares of a moderately liquid Canadian technology company. Her strategy anticipates a significant upward price movement following an upcoming product launch. The Bourse de Montréal, as the listing exchange, imposes several types of limits and levels on market participants. What is the principal regulatory objective behind the exchange’s imposition of position limits in this context, and what specific market risk are these limits designed to mitigate?
Correct
Position limits are established by an options exchange, such as the Bourse de Montréal, to prevent an investor or a group of investors acting together from accumulating a position so large that it could negatively impact the market. The primary concern is the potential for market manipulation or disruption of the underlying security’s market. A massive concentration of options, especially on one side of the market like holding a vast number of call options, could give the holder the ability to influence the price of the underlying stock. For instance, if a holder of a massive call position were to exercise all their options simultaneously, it would create a sudden and immense demand for the underlying shares. This could artificially inflate the stock’s price, an event known as a corner or a squeeze. This action would disrupt the fair and orderly functioning of the market, harming other investors and undermining confidence in the market’s integrity. While other mechanisms like reporting levels and margin requirements also manage risk, position limits are the direct tool used to cap the size of a position to specifically prevent this type of market disruption and manipulation. They are not primarily designed to manage the clearing corporation’s credit risk, which is handled by margin, nor are they solely for surveillance, which is the role of reporting levels.
Incorrect
Position limits are established by an options exchange, such as the Bourse de Montréal, to prevent an investor or a group of investors acting together from accumulating a position so large that it could negatively impact the market. The primary concern is the potential for market manipulation or disruption of the underlying security’s market. A massive concentration of options, especially on one side of the market like holding a vast number of call options, could give the holder the ability to influence the price of the underlying stock. For instance, if a holder of a massive call position were to exercise all their options simultaneously, it would create a sudden and immense demand for the underlying shares. This could artificially inflate the stock’s price, an event known as a corner or a squeeze. This action would disrupt the fair and orderly functioning of the market, harming other investors and undermining confidence in the market’s integrity. While other mechanisms like reporting levels and margin requirements also manage risk, position limits are the direct tool used to cap the size of a position to specifically prevent this type of market disruption and manipulation. They are not primarily designed to manage the clearing corporation’s credit risk, which is handled by margin, nor are they solely for surveillance, which is the role of reporting levels.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
The following case involves Anjali, a recent retiree with a modest, fixed pension income. She approaches her Investment Advisor, Ken, wishing to open an options account. On her New Account Application Form, she states her investment objective is “income generation” and her risk tolerance is “low to medium”. Anjali has limited investment knowledge but requests to specifically engage in writing covered calls, a strategy she heard about from a friend. Considering Ken’s obligations under CIRO rules, what is his most critical responsibility in this situation?
Correct
The core regulatory principle governing the interaction between a registrant and a retail client is the suitability obligation, which is a fundamental component of the Client Focused Reforms. This obligation requires the registrant to ensure that any recommendation or action taken for a client’s account is suitable for that client, based on their specific circumstances. These circumstances are captured on the New Account Application Form (NAAF) and include the client’s financial situation, investment knowledge, investment objectives, and tolerance for risk. In the described scenario, the client has a low-to-medium risk tolerance, limited investment knowledge, and relies on a fixed income. While covered call writing is often categorized as an income-generating strategy, it is not without risk. The writer is obligated to sell the underlying stock if the option is exercised, potentially forgoing future capital appreciation. This loss of upside potential is a significant risk that must be understood. The registrant’s primary duty is not merely to facilitate the client’s request but to act in the client’s best interest. This involves a comprehensive assessment. If the registrant concludes that the strategy’s risk profile is inconsistent with the client’s documented risk tolerance and financial situation, they have a professional and regulatory duty to advise the client against it. Simply having the client sign a Risk Disclosure Statement is insufficient to meet the suitability obligation; disclosure does not override the need for the strategy to be appropriate. The final decision must be based on a holistic evaluation of the client’s profile, and the registrant must be prepared to refuse to recommend or facilitate the strategy if it is deemed unsuitable, documenting the rationale for this decision thoroughly.
Incorrect
The core regulatory principle governing the interaction between a registrant and a retail client is the suitability obligation, which is a fundamental component of the Client Focused Reforms. This obligation requires the registrant to ensure that any recommendation or action taken for a client’s account is suitable for that client, based on their specific circumstances. These circumstances are captured on the New Account Application Form (NAAF) and include the client’s financial situation, investment knowledge, investment objectives, and tolerance for risk. In the described scenario, the client has a low-to-medium risk tolerance, limited investment knowledge, and relies on a fixed income. While covered call writing is often categorized as an income-generating strategy, it is not without risk. The writer is obligated to sell the underlying stock if the option is exercised, potentially forgoing future capital appreciation. This loss of upside potential is a significant risk that must be understood. The registrant’s primary duty is not merely to facilitate the client’s request but to act in the client’s best interest. This involves a comprehensive assessment. If the registrant concludes that the strategy’s risk profile is inconsistent with the client’s documented risk tolerance and financial situation, they have a professional and regulatory duty to advise the client against it. Simply having the client sign a Risk Disclosure Statement is insufficient to meet the suitability obligation; disclosure does not override the need for the strategy to be appropriate. The final decision must be based on a holistic evaluation of the client’s profile, and the registrant must be prepared to refuse to recommend or facilitate the strategy if it is deemed unsuitable, documenting the rationale for this decision thoroughly.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Assessment of a client’s request reveals a significant deviation from their established investment profile. Jean-Luc, a long-standing client of registrant Anika, has an account with a “balanced” objective and a “medium” risk tolerance as documented on his Option Account Application Form. He has previously only invested in blue-chip stocks and covered calls. He calls Anika and asks to place an order to write an uncovered straddle on a highly volatile technology stock, a strategy he heard about from a colleague. According to CIRO’s standards of conduct, what is Anika’s most appropriate and compliant initial course of action?
Correct
The core of this scenario revolves around a registrant’s fundamental obligations under the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) framework, specifically the Know Your Client (KYC) and suitability rules. When a client proposes a transaction that is inconsistent with their documented investment objectives, risk tolerance, and financial circumstances, the registrant cannot simply execute the order, even if it is unsolicited. The registrant’s primary duty is to act in the client’s best interest.
The first and most critical step is to engage in a comprehensive discussion with the client. This conversation should aim to understand the reasons behind the client’s sudden interest in a high-risk strategy. The registrant must thoroughly explain the mechanics and, more importantly, the significant risks associated with the proposed strategy, which in this case is a short straddle with its unlimited risk potential. This goes beyond merely pointing to the standard Risk Disclosure Statement.
If, after this detailed discussion, it becomes clear that the client’s investment objectives or risk tolerance have genuinely and materially changed, the registrant must formally update the client’s KYC information. This involves amending the New Account Application Form and the specific Option Account Application Form to accurately reflect the new, higher risk tolerance and speculative objectives. This documentation must be updated and signed by the client before any transactions reflecting this new strategy are accepted. Simply making a note on file or accepting a verbal confirmation is insufficient and fails to meet regulatory standards. Refusing the trade outright without a thorough discussion and reassessment would be premature, as the client’s situation may have legitimately evolved. The proper procedure is to discuss, assess, and then formally document any material changes before proceeding.
Incorrect
The core of this scenario revolves around a registrant’s fundamental obligations under the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) framework, specifically the Know Your Client (KYC) and suitability rules. When a client proposes a transaction that is inconsistent with their documented investment objectives, risk tolerance, and financial circumstances, the registrant cannot simply execute the order, even if it is unsolicited. The registrant’s primary duty is to act in the client’s best interest.
The first and most critical step is to engage in a comprehensive discussion with the client. This conversation should aim to understand the reasons behind the client’s sudden interest in a high-risk strategy. The registrant must thoroughly explain the mechanics and, more importantly, the significant risks associated with the proposed strategy, which in this case is a short straddle with its unlimited risk potential. This goes beyond merely pointing to the standard Risk Disclosure Statement.
If, after this detailed discussion, it becomes clear that the client’s investment objectives or risk tolerance have genuinely and materially changed, the registrant must formally update the client’s KYC information. This involves amending the New Account Application Form and the specific Option Account Application Form to accurately reflect the new, higher risk tolerance and speculative objectives. This documentation must be updated and signed by the client before any transactions reflecting this new strategy are accepted. Simply making a note on file or accepting a verbal confirmation is insufficient and fails to meet regulatory standards. Refusing the trade outright without a thorough discussion and reassessment would be premature, as the client’s situation may have legitimately evolved. The proper procedure is to discuss, assess, and then formally document any material changes before proceeding.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
An assessment of a portfolio manager’s strategy for a fund governed by Canadian securities regulations reveals a specific objective. The manager, Amara, holds a concentrated position of 50,000 shares in a single, volatile stock. To protect against a potential short-term downturn without liquidating the shares, she implements a delta-neutral hedge by purchasing at-the-money put options on the stock. If the stock price then experiences a significant and rapid decline, what is the resulting state of the portfolio’s delta and what rebalancing action is required to maintain the delta-neutral objective?
Correct
A delta-neutral hedge aims to create a portfolio whose value is insensitive to small changes in the price of the underlying asset. The delta of a portfolio is the sum of the deltas of its individual components. A long position in a stock has a constant delta of +1 for each share. Therefore, a position of 50,000 shares has a delta of \(+50,000\). To create a delta-neutral position, the manager must add a position with an offsetting delta of \(-50,000\).
Put options have negative deltas, ranging from 0 to -1. At-the-money puts have a delta of approximately -0.5. By purchasing a sufficient number of at-the-money put contracts, the manager can establish an initial portfolio delta of approximately zero.
However, an option’s delta is not static; it changes as the price of the underlying asset changes. This rate of change in delta is known as gamma. For a long put position, as the underlying stock price falls, the put option moves deeper in-the-money. As it moves in-the-money, its delta becomes more negative, approaching -1.
In this scenario, a significant drop in the stock’s price will cause the delta of the purchased puts to move from approximately -0.5 towards -1.0. Consequently, the total delta of the put position will become more negative than the initial \(-50,000\). For example, it might become \(-75,000\). The portfolio’s net delta would then be the stock’s delta (\(+50,000\)) plus the new put delta (\(-75,000\)), resulting in a net negative delta of \(-25,000\). The hedge is no longer neutral. To re-establish neutrality, the manager must reduce the magnitude of the negative delta from the options position. This is achieved by selling some of the long put options until the total delta of the remaining puts once again offsets the delta of the stock position.
Incorrect
A delta-neutral hedge aims to create a portfolio whose value is insensitive to small changes in the price of the underlying asset. The delta of a portfolio is the sum of the deltas of its individual components. A long position in a stock has a constant delta of +1 for each share. Therefore, a position of 50,000 shares has a delta of \(+50,000\). To create a delta-neutral position, the manager must add a position with an offsetting delta of \(-50,000\).
Put options have negative deltas, ranging from 0 to -1. At-the-money puts have a delta of approximately -0.5. By purchasing a sufficient number of at-the-money put contracts, the manager can establish an initial portfolio delta of approximately zero.
However, an option’s delta is not static; it changes as the price of the underlying asset changes. This rate of change in delta is known as gamma. For a long put position, as the underlying stock price falls, the put option moves deeper in-the-money. As it moves in-the-money, its delta becomes more negative, approaching -1.
In this scenario, a significant drop in the stock’s price will cause the delta of the purchased puts to move from approximately -0.5 towards -1.0. Consequently, the total delta of the put position will become more negative than the initial \(-50,000\). For example, it might become \(-75,000\). The portfolio’s net delta would then be the stock’s delta (\(+50,000\)) plus the new put delta (\(-75,000\)), resulting in a net negative delta of \(-25,000\). The hedge is no longer neutral. To re-establish neutrality, the manager must reduce the magnitude of the negative delta from the options position. This is achieved by selling some of the long put options until the total delta of the remaining puts once again offsets the delta of the stock position.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
An Investment Advisor at a CIRO member firm is onboarding a new client, Kenji, who has a moderate risk tolerance, limited investment knowledge, and an investment objective focused on generating supplemental income. Kenji’s portfolio includes a long-standing position of 1,000 shares in a large, stable Canadian telecommunications company. Kenji has expressed interest in using options to meet his income goal. Considering the principles of suitability and the tiered approval process for options accounts, what is the most appropriate initial course of action for the advisor?
Correct
The most appropriate initial action is to recommend a covered call writing strategy against the client’s existing long stock position. This recommendation aligns directly with the client’s stated investment objective of income generation, as the client will receive premium income from selling the call options. From a risk perspective, this strategy is suitable for an investor with a moderate risk tolerance and limited knowledge. The primary risk is not a loss of capital beyond the risk already assumed by owning the stock, but rather an opportunity cost if the stock’s price increases substantially beyond the option’s strike price, as the shares would be called away. The downside risk is limited to the decline in the value of the underlying shares, less the premium received, a risk the client has already accepted by owning the stock. This strategy is considered one of the most conservative option strategies and is typically permitted under the most basic level of options account approval. Before any trades can be executed, the advisor must ensure all necessary documentation is complete, including the Option Account Application Form, the signed Derivatives Trading Agreement, and the client’s acknowledgement of receiving the Risk Disclosure Statement. This methodical approach ensures compliance with CIRO’s suitability and account opening requirements, matching the client’s profile with an appropriate strategy and level of account authorization.
Incorrect
The most appropriate initial action is to recommend a covered call writing strategy against the client’s existing long stock position. This recommendation aligns directly with the client’s stated investment objective of income generation, as the client will receive premium income from selling the call options. From a risk perspective, this strategy is suitable for an investor with a moderate risk tolerance and limited knowledge. The primary risk is not a loss of capital beyond the risk already assumed by owning the stock, but rather an opportunity cost if the stock’s price increases substantially beyond the option’s strike price, as the shares would be called away. The downside risk is limited to the decline in the value of the underlying shares, less the premium received, a risk the client has already accepted by owning the stock. This strategy is considered one of the most conservative option strategies and is typically permitted under the most basic level of options account approval. Before any trades can be executed, the advisor must ensure all necessary documentation is complete, including the Option Account Application Form, the signed Derivatives Trading Agreement, and the client’s acknowledgement of receiving the Risk Disclosure Statement. This methodical approach ensures compliance with CIRO’s suitability and account opening requirements, matching the client’s profile with an appropriate strategy and level of account authorization.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Anika, a registrant with a CIRO member firm, is meeting with her long-time client, Mr. Chen, a 70-year-old retiree. Mr. Chen’s account is managed with a stated objective of ‘capital preservation with modest income’ and a ‘low’ risk tolerance. During the meeting, Mr. Chen expresses a keen interest in ‘generating more income’ by writing covered calls on his blue-chip stock portfolio, a strategy he heard about from a friend. He has no prior experience with derivatives. According to the Registrant Standards of Conduct and suitability requirements, what is Anika’s most appropriate initial course of action?
Correct
The foundational principle governing a registrant’s conduct is the suitability obligation, which is a cornerstone of the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) rules. This duty requires the registrant to ensure that every recommendation and action taken for a client is suitable based on the client’s specific circumstances. This involves a thorough understanding of the client’s financial situation, investment knowledge, investment objectives, and risk tolerance, collectively known as Know Your Client (KYC) information.
In the presented scenario, the client is a retiree with a low risk tolerance and a primary objective of capital preservation. His interest in a derivative strategy like covered calls stems from an anecdotal source, not from an understanding of the product. While covered call writing can be perceived as a conservative income-generating strategy, it is not without risk. It introduces complexities and potential outcomes, such as opportunity cost on significant upward stock movements and the underlying risk of capital loss if the stock price declines, which may not align with the client’s profile.
Therefore, the registrant’s primary professional and ethical responsibility is not to simply execute the client’s request. Instead, the registrant must act as a gatekeeper. The most appropriate initial action is to engage in a comprehensive educational process. This involves using the official options risk disclosure statement to explain the mechanics, benefits, and, most importantly, the full spectrum of risks associated with the proposed strategy. Following this education, the registrant must reassess the client’s understanding and confirm if their risk tolerance has genuinely changed. If, after this process, the strategy remains inconsistent with the client’s established KYC profile and objectives, the registrant has a duty to advise against it and decline to open the account for options trading. This approach prioritizes the client’s best interests above all else and demonstrates full compliance with regulatory standards.
Incorrect
The foundational principle governing a registrant’s conduct is the suitability obligation, which is a cornerstone of the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) rules. This duty requires the registrant to ensure that every recommendation and action taken for a client is suitable based on the client’s specific circumstances. This involves a thorough understanding of the client’s financial situation, investment knowledge, investment objectives, and risk tolerance, collectively known as Know Your Client (KYC) information.
In the presented scenario, the client is a retiree with a low risk tolerance and a primary objective of capital preservation. His interest in a derivative strategy like covered calls stems from an anecdotal source, not from an understanding of the product. While covered call writing can be perceived as a conservative income-generating strategy, it is not without risk. It introduces complexities and potential outcomes, such as opportunity cost on significant upward stock movements and the underlying risk of capital loss if the stock price declines, which may not align with the client’s profile.
Therefore, the registrant’s primary professional and ethical responsibility is not to simply execute the client’s request. Instead, the registrant must act as a gatekeeper. The most appropriate initial action is to engage in a comprehensive educational process. This involves using the official options risk disclosure statement to explain the mechanics, benefits, and, most importantly, the full spectrum of risks associated with the proposed strategy. Following this education, the registrant must reassess the client’s understanding and confirm if their risk tolerance has genuinely changed. If, after this process, the strategy remains inconsistent with the client’s established KYC profile and objectives, the registrant has a duty to advise against it and decline to open the account for options trading. This approach prioritizes the client’s best interests above all else and demonstrates full compliance with regulatory standards.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider a scenario where an investor, Amara, holds call option contracts on a TSX-listed company, TEC Corp. Each contract has a strike price of $50.00 and covers the standard 100 shares. TEC Corp. then announces a 1-for-4 rights offering, which allows existing shareholders to purchase one new share for every four shares they currently hold. According to the adjustment rules of the Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC), what will be the new terms for each of Amara’s call option contracts on the ex-rights date?
Correct
Calculation of the adjusted option contract terms:
1. Determine the adjustment factor based on the 1-for-4 rights issue. For every 4 old shares, there is 1 new share, for a total of 5. The factor is \( \frac{4+1}{4} = 1.25 \).
2. Calculate the new number of shares per contract.
New Shares = Original Shares × Adjustment Factor
New Shares = \(100 \times 1.25 = 125\) shares.
3. Calculate the new strike price per share.
New Strike Price = Original Strike Price ÷ Adjustment Factor
New Strike Price = \(\$50.00 \div 1.25 = \$40.00\).
The adjusted contract will cover 125 shares at a strike price of $40.00.When a company undertakes a corporate action such as a rights issue, it can dilute the value of its existing shares. To protect the economic interests of option holders, the Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC) adjusts the terms of all outstanding option contracts on that security. The fundamental principle of this adjustment is to ensure that the option holder’s overall position is not adversely affected by the corporate action. For a rights issue, the adjustment typically involves changing both the number of underlying shares covered by the contract and the strike price. In the case of a 1-for-4 rights offering, an owner of 100 shares would be entitled to purchase 25 new shares. To reflect this, the option contract is adjusted so that it now covers 125 shares instead of the original 100. Concurrently, the strike price must be reduced to maintain the same aggregate exercise cost for the equivalent economic interest. The original aggregate exercise cost was for 100 shares at a strike of fifty dollars. The new aggregate exercise cost for 125 shares must be equivalent, which necessitates a lower per-share strike price. This adjustment ensures that the intrinsic value of the option immediately before and after the ex-rights date remains neutral.
Incorrect
Calculation of the adjusted option contract terms:
1. Determine the adjustment factor based on the 1-for-4 rights issue. For every 4 old shares, there is 1 new share, for a total of 5. The factor is \( \frac{4+1}{4} = 1.25 \).
2. Calculate the new number of shares per contract.
New Shares = Original Shares × Adjustment Factor
New Shares = \(100 \times 1.25 = 125\) shares.
3. Calculate the new strike price per share.
New Strike Price = Original Strike Price ÷ Adjustment Factor
New Strike Price = \(\$50.00 \div 1.25 = \$40.00\).
The adjusted contract will cover 125 shares at a strike price of $40.00.When a company undertakes a corporate action such as a rights issue, it can dilute the value of its existing shares. To protect the economic interests of option holders, the Canadian Derivatives Clearing Corporation (CDCC) adjusts the terms of all outstanding option contracts on that security. The fundamental principle of this adjustment is to ensure that the option holder’s overall position is not adversely affected by the corporate action. For a rights issue, the adjustment typically involves changing both the number of underlying shares covered by the contract and the strike price. In the case of a 1-for-4 rights offering, an owner of 100 shares would be entitled to purchase 25 new shares. To reflect this, the option contract is adjusted so that it now covers 125 shares instead of the original 100. Concurrently, the strike price must be reduced to maintain the same aggregate exercise cost for the equivalent economic interest. The original aggregate exercise cost was for 100 shares at a strike of fifty dollars. The new aggregate exercise cost for 125 shares must be equivalent, which necessitates a lower per-share strike price. This adjustment ensures that the intrinsic value of the option immediately before and after the ex-rights date remains neutral.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
An assessment of a client’s new derivatives position reveals the following details: the client, Anika, has sold 10 call option contracts on XYZ Corp. with a strike price of $65 and bought 10 call option contracts on the same underlying with a strike price of $75. Both options have the same expiration date. The premium received for the short calls was $4.50 per share, and the premium paid for the long calls was $1.00 per share. At the time of the transaction, XYZ Corp. stock was trading at $68 per share. According to CIRO regulations, what is the initial minimum margin requirement for this entire options position?
Correct
The margin requirement for a short call spread, also known as a bear call spread, is calculated based on the difference between the strike prices of the long and short call options. This is because the position has a defined and limited risk profile. The maximum potential loss on the strategy is capped by the presence of the long call option, which protects against unlimited losses that would otherwise be associated with a naked short call.
The formula for the CIRO minimum margin requirement for a short call spread is:
Margin = (Strike Price of Long Call – Strike Price of Short Call) x Number of Contracts x MultiplierIn this specific scenario, the investor has shorted the call with the lower strike price and bought the call with the higher strike price, creating a bear call spread.
Strike Price of the Long Call = \( \$75 \)
Strike Price of the Short Call = \( \$65 \)
Number of Contracts = \( 10 \)
Multiplier (standard for Canadian equity options) = \( 100 \)First, calculate the difference in the strike prices:
\[ \$75 – \$65 = \$10 \]Next, multiply this difference by the total number of shares controlled by the contracts:
\[ \$10 \times 10 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} = \$10,000 \]Therefore, the minimum margin requirement for this position is \( \$10,000 \). The net credit received from establishing the position, which is \( ( \$4.50 – \$1.00 ) \times 10 \times 100 = \$3,500 \), can be applied to meet this margin requirement, but it does not change the calculated margin amount itself. The margin represents the maximum potential loss on the position before considering the initial premium received. The purpose of this margin rule is to ensure that sufficient funds are held in the account to cover the maximum possible loss that could be incurred from the strategy.
Incorrect
The margin requirement for a short call spread, also known as a bear call spread, is calculated based on the difference between the strike prices of the long and short call options. This is because the position has a defined and limited risk profile. The maximum potential loss on the strategy is capped by the presence of the long call option, which protects against unlimited losses that would otherwise be associated with a naked short call.
The formula for the CIRO minimum margin requirement for a short call spread is:
Margin = (Strike Price of Long Call – Strike Price of Short Call) x Number of Contracts x MultiplierIn this specific scenario, the investor has shorted the call with the lower strike price and bought the call with the higher strike price, creating a bear call spread.
Strike Price of the Long Call = \( \$75 \)
Strike Price of the Short Call = \( \$65 \)
Number of Contracts = \( 10 \)
Multiplier (standard for Canadian equity options) = \( 100 \)First, calculate the difference in the strike prices:
\[ \$75 – \$65 = \$10 \]Next, multiply this difference by the total number of shares controlled by the contracts:
\[ \$10 \times 10 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} = \$10,000 \]Therefore, the minimum margin requirement for this position is \( \$10,000 \). The net credit received from establishing the position, which is \( ( \$4.50 – \$1.00 ) \times 10 \times 100 = \$3,500 \), can be applied to meet this margin requirement, but it does not change the calculated margin amount itself. The margin represents the maximum potential loss on the position before considering the initial premium received. The purpose of this margin rule is to ensure that sufficient funds are held in the account to cover the maximum possible loss that could be incurred from the strategy.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Assessment of a specific client onboarding scenario reveals a potential conflict. Anika, a client with a documented moderate risk tolerance and limited options experience, has completed a Derivatives Trading Agreement with her Investment Advisor, Liam. Anika is insistent on being approved for writing uncovered equity calls. Liam, noting the discrepancy but wanting to accommodate his client, forwards the completed account forms with his recommendation for approval. Under CIRO regulations, who bears the ultimate responsibility for the final acceptance of Anika’s derivatives trading account and ensuring the initial approved strategies are suitable?
Correct
Under the regulatory framework established by the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO), the ultimate responsibility for the final acceptance of a new derivatives account rests with a qualified supervisor, typically the Branch Manager or another designated supervisory officer within the member firm. While the Investment Advisor is responsible for the initial Know Your Client (KYC) process, completing the New Account Application Form, and making a preliminary suitability assessment, their role is one of recommendation. The supervisor’s approval is the critical final step that contractually binds the firm to the client relationship. This supervisory review is not a mere formality; it is a crucial control mechanism. The supervisor must independently review all documentation, including the client’s financial situation, investment knowledge, objectives, and risk tolerance, to ensure that opening the account and permitting the proposed trading strategies are indeed suitable for the client. If there are inconsistencies, such as a client with a moderate risk profile requesting to engage in high-risk strategies like writing uncovered options, the supervisor has the authority and responsibility to reject the account application or place specific restrictions on it, irrespective of the Investment Advisor’s recommendation or the client’s insistence. This gatekeeper function is fundamental to protecting the client from unsuitable investments and safeguarding the firm from regulatory and legal risks.
Incorrect
Under the regulatory framework established by the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO), the ultimate responsibility for the final acceptance of a new derivatives account rests with a qualified supervisor, typically the Branch Manager or another designated supervisory officer within the member firm. While the Investment Advisor is responsible for the initial Know Your Client (KYC) process, completing the New Account Application Form, and making a preliminary suitability assessment, their role is one of recommendation. The supervisor’s approval is the critical final step that contractually binds the firm to the client relationship. This supervisory review is not a mere formality; it is a crucial control mechanism. The supervisor must independently review all documentation, including the client’s financial situation, investment knowledge, objectives, and risk tolerance, to ensure that opening the account and permitting the proposed trading strategies are indeed suitable for the client. If there are inconsistencies, such as a client with a moderate risk profile requesting to engage in high-risk strategies like writing uncovered options, the supervisor has the authority and responsibility to reject the account application or place specific restrictions on it, irrespective of the Investment Advisor’s recommendation or the client’s insistence. This gatekeeper function is fundamental to protecting the client from unsuitable investments and safeguarding the firm from regulatory and legal risks.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A portfolio manager, Kenji, holds a long position of 10,000 shares in XYZ Corp. To partially hedge against a potential downturn, he writes 200 XYZ call option contracts. At the time of the transaction, each call option had a delta of \(+0.40\). Following positive corporate news, the price of XYZ shares increases substantially, causing the delta of each call option to rise to \(+0.75\). Considering the change in the option’s delta, what is the resulting risk exposure of Kenji’s combined portfolio?
Correct
To determine the new delta of the portfolio, we must calculate the delta of each component after the stock price change. The portfolio consists of two positions: long 10,000 shares of XYZ and short 200 XYZ call option contracts.
Initial state:
Long stock position delta: \(10,000 \text{ shares} \times (+1.0) = +10,000\)
The initial hedge was created by writing call options. Each call option has a delta of \(+0.40\). Since the options are written (sold), their delta contribution is negative. Each contract represents 100 shares.
Initial short call position delta: \(200 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} \times (-0.40) = -8,000\)
Initial total portfolio delta: \(+10,000 – 8,000 = +2,000\)
The initial position was not perfectly delta-neutral but was under-hedged.State after stock price increase:
The delta of the long stock position remains constant at \(+10,000\).
As the stock price increases, the call options move further in-the-money, and their delta increases, moving closer to 1.0. The new delta for each call option is \(+0.75\).
New short call position delta: \(200 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} \times (-0.75) = -15,000\)
New total portfolio delta: \(+10,000 – 15,000 = -5,000\)The portfolio’s delta has changed from \(+2,000\) to \(-5,000\). This means the portfolio is now net short delta.
A key concept in option pricing and risk management is delta, which measures the rate of change of an option’s price relative to a one-dollar change in the underlying asset’s price. For a long stock position, the delta is always +1. For call options, delta is positive and ranges from 0 to +1, while for put options, delta is negative and ranges from -1 to 0. When an investor creates a hedge, such as a delta-neutral hedge, they are attempting to offset the delta of their primary position with an opposing delta from a derivatives position. In this scenario, the portfolio manager is long stock and short calls. The delta of a call option is not static; it changes as the underlying stock price fluctuates. This sensitivity of delta to changes in the underlying price is known as gamma. As the stock price rises, a call option’s delta increases, approaching +1. Consequently, for a position that is short call options, the negative delta becomes larger in magnitude. This means that a hedge that was established at one price point will become unbalanced as the underlying price moves, requiring adjustments to maintain the desired delta exposure. This process is known as dynamic hedging. The shift from a positive delta to a negative delta indicates the hedge has overcompensated for the stock’s upward movement.
Incorrect
To determine the new delta of the portfolio, we must calculate the delta of each component after the stock price change. The portfolio consists of two positions: long 10,000 shares of XYZ and short 200 XYZ call option contracts.
Initial state:
Long stock position delta: \(10,000 \text{ shares} \times (+1.0) = +10,000\)
The initial hedge was created by writing call options. Each call option has a delta of \(+0.40\). Since the options are written (sold), their delta contribution is negative. Each contract represents 100 shares.
Initial short call position delta: \(200 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} \times (-0.40) = -8,000\)
Initial total portfolio delta: \(+10,000 – 8,000 = +2,000\)
The initial position was not perfectly delta-neutral but was under-hedged.State after stock price increase:
The delta of the long stock position remains constant at \(+10,000\).
As the stock price increases, the call options move further in-the-money, and their delta increases, moving closer to 1.0. The new delta for each call option is \(+0.75\).
New short call position delta: \(200 \text{ contracts} \times 100 \text{ shares/contract} \times (-0.75) = -15,000\)
New total portfolio delta: \(+10,000 – 15,000 = -5,000\)The portfolio’s delta has changed from \(+2,000\) to \(-5,000\). This means the portfolio is now net short delta.
A key concept in option pricing and risk management is delta, which measures the rate of change of an option’s price relative to a one-dollar change in the underlying asset’s price. For a long stock position, the delta is always +1. For call options, delta is positive and ranges from 0 to +1, while for put options, delta is negative and ranges from -1 to 0. When an investor creates a hedge, such as a delta-neutral hedge, they are attempting to offset the delta of their primary position with an opposing delta from a derivatives position. In this scenario, the portfolio manager is long stock and short calls. The delta of a call option is not static; it changes as the underlying stock price fluctuates. This sensitivity of delta to changes in the underlying price is known as gamma. As the stock price rises, a call option’s delta increases, approaching +1. Consequently, for a position that is short call options, the negative delta becomes larger in magnitude. This means that a hedge that was established at one price point will become unbalanced as the underlying price moves, requiring adjustments to maintain the desired delta exposure. This process is known as dynamic hedging. The shift from a positive delta to a negative delta indicates the hedge has overcompensated for the stock’s upward movement.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
An assessment of a client’s portfolio, managed by Amara, reveals a ratio call write strategy on XYZ Corp. Amara owns 200 shares of XYZ and has written 3 XYZ $55 call option contracts. The premium received for writing the options was $3 per share. For a margin call calculation, the current market price of XYZ is $56 per share. According to CIRO regulations for an uncovered short call option, which use a 25% factor for the primary calculation and a 10% factor for the alternative, what is the minimum margin requirement for Amara’s entire option position?
Correct
The calculation determines the minimum margin requirement for a ratio call write strategy under CIRO rules. The investor owns 200 shares and has written 3 call contracts. This means 2 of the short call contracts are covered by the owned shares, and 1 contract is uncovered (naked). Margin is only required on the uncovered portion of the position.
The CIRO margin requirement for a single short uncovered call contract is the greater of two calculations:
1. Premium received + (25% of the underlying market value) – (Out-of-the-money amount)
2. Premium received + (10% of the underlying market value)First, identify the variables for the single uncovered contract:
– Premium received per contract: \(100 \text{ shares/contract} \times \$3/\text{share} = \$300\)
– Underlying market value per contract: \(100 \text{ shares/contract} \times \$56/\text{share} = \$5,600\)
– The option is in-the-money because the market price (\(\$56\)) is greater than the strike price (\(\$55\)). Therefore, the out-of-the-money amount is \$0.Now, perform the two calculations for the single uncovered call contract:
Calculation 1:
\[ \$300 + (0.25 \times \$5,600) – \$0 \]
\[ \$300 + \$1,400 – \$0 = \$1,700 \]Calculation 2:
\[ \$300 + (0.10 \times \$5,600) \]
\[ \$300 + \$560 = \$860 \]The required margin is the greater of the two results. Comparing \$1,700 and \$860, the greater amount is \$1,700. Therefore, the minimum margin requirement for the entire option position is \$1,700.
This margin calculation framework is designed to ensure that the brokerage firm holds sufficient collateral to cover the potential losses from the client’s uncovered short option position. A ratio write strategy involves writing more call options than the number of shares owned, creating an obligation that is not fully covered. The covered portion, where the investor owns the underlying shares to deliver if the options are exercised, does not require margin. However, the uncovered portion exposes the writer to unlimited risk if the stock price rises significantly, as they would have to buy shares in the open market to fulfill their obligation. The two-pronged margin formula accounts for both the current market value of the underlying and the premium received, with the subtraction of the out-of-the-money amount in the first formula providing a small concession for options that are not yet profitable for the holder. The final requirement being the greater of the two calculations ensures a conservative and adequate level of protection for the firm.
Incorrect
The calculation determines the minimum margin requirement for a ratio call write strategy under CIRO rules. The investor owns 200 shares and has written 3 call contracts. This means 2 of the short call contracts are covered by the owned shares, and 1 contract is uncovered (naked). Margin is only required on the uncovered portion of the position.
The CIRO margin requirement for a single short uncovered call contract is the greater of two calculations:
1. Premium received + (25% of the underlying market value) – (Out-of-the-money amount)
2. Premium received + (10% of the underlying market value)First, identify the variables for the single uncovered contract:
– Premium received per contract: \(100 \text{ shares/contract} \times \$3/\text{share} = \$300\)
– Underlying market value per contract: \(100 \text{ shares/contract} \times \$56/\text{share} = \$5,600\)
– The option is in-the-money because the market price (\(\$56\)) is greater than the strike price (\(\$55\)). Therefore, the out-of-the-money amount is \$0.Now, perform the two calculations for the single uncovered call contract:
Calculation 1:
\[ \$300 + (0.25 \times \$5,600) – \$0 \]
\[ \$300 + \$1,400 – \$0 = \$1,700 \]Calculation 2:
\[ \$300 + (0.10 \times \$5,600) \]
\[ \$300 + \$560 = \$860 \]The required margin is the greater of the two results. Comparing \$1,700 and \$860, the greater amount is \$1,700. Therefore, the minimum margin requirement for the entire option position is \$1,700.
This margin calculation framework is designed to ensure that the brokerage firm holds sufficient collateral to cover the potential losses from the client’s uncovered short option position. A ratio write strategy involves writing more call options than the number of shares owned, creating an obligation that is not fully covered. The covered portion, where the investor owns the underlying shares to deliver if the options are exercised, does not require margin. However, the uncovered portion exposes the writer to unlimited risk if the stock price rises significantly, as they would have to buy shares in the open market to fulfill their obligation. The two-pronged margin formula accounts for both the current market value of the underlying and the premium received, with the subtraction of the out-of-the-money amount in the first formula providing a small concession for options that are not yet profitable for the holder. The final requirement being the greater of the two calculations ensures a conservative and adequate level of protection for the firm.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
A portfolio manager for a pension plan, which is an “acceptable institutional client” under CIRO rules, establishes the following credit spread position in a cash account on ABC corporation stock:
– Writes 100 ABC May 50 call contracts at a premium of $4.00 each.
– Buys 100 ABC May 55 call contracts at a premium of $1.50 each.
At the time of the transaction, ABC stock is trading at $52.00 per share. According to CIRO regulations, what is the specific initial margin requirement that must be maintained for this entire position?Correct
The calculation for the margin requirement is as follows:
First, identify the strategy and the net premium. The position is a bear call spread, also known as a credit call spread.
Net premium received per share = Premium from short call – Premium for long call
Net premium received per share = \(\$4.00 – \$1.50 = \$2.50\)Next, calculate the maximum potential loss per share for this spread. This represents the margin requirement per share.
Maximum loss per share = (Strike price of long call – Strike price of short call) – Net premium received per share
Maximum loss per share = \((\$55 – \$50) – \$2.50\)
Maximum loss per share = \(\$5.00 – \$2.50 = \$2.50\)Finally, calculate the total margin requirement for the entire position, which consists of 100 contracts, with each contract representing 100 shares.
Total shares = 100 contracts * 100 shares/contract = 10,000 shares
Total margin requirement = Maximum loss per share * Total shares
Total margin requirement = \(\$2.50 \times 10,000 = \$25,000\)The position established is a bear call spread, which is a type of credit spread because the premium received from writing the lower-strike call exceeds the premium paid for the higher-strike call. For such defined-risk strategies, the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) margin rules are designed to ensure the account holds sufficient capital to cover the maximum possible loss. The maximum loss on a bear call spread is fixed and can be calculated precisely. It is the difference between the strike prices of the long and short call options, reduced by the net credit received when initiating the position. In this scenario, the difference between the strikes is five dollars. The net credit received is two dollars and fifty cents per share. Therefore, the maximum risk, or maximum potential loss, is two dollars and fifty cents per share. The total margin requirement is this per-share risk multiplied by the total number of shares covered by the contracts. This approach reflects the fact that the long call option acts as a hedge, capping the otherwise unlimited risk of the short call position. Consequently, the margin required is not based on the unlimited risk of a naked call but on the capped, defined risk of the entire spread.
Incorrect
The calculation for the margin requirement is as follows:
First, identify the strategy and the net premium. The position is a bear call spread, also known as a credit call spread.
Net premium received per share = Premium from short call – Premium for long call
Net premium received per share = \(\$4.00 – \$1.50 = \$2.50\)Next, calculate the maximum potential loss per share for this spread. This represents the margin requirement per share.
Maximum loss per share = (Strike price of long call – Strike price of short call) – Net premium received per share
Maximum loss per share = \((\$55 – \$50) – \$2.50\)
Maximum loss per share = \(\$5.00 – \$2.50 = \$2.50\)Finally, calculate the total margin requirement for the entire position, which consists of 100 contracts, with each contract representing 100 shares.
Total shares = 100 contracts * 100 shares/contract = 10,000 shares
Total margin requirement = Maximum loss per share * Total shares
Total margin requirement = \(\$2.50 \times 10,000 = \$25,000\)The position established is a bear call spread, which is a type of credit spread because the premium received from writing the lower-strike call exceeds the premium paid for the higher-strike call. For such defined-risk strategies, the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) margin rules are designed to ensure the account holds sufficient capital to cover the maximum possible loss. The maximum loss on a bear call spread is fixed and can be calculated precisely. It is the difference between the strike prices of the long and short call options, reduced by the net credit received when initiating the position. In this scenario, the difference between the strikes is five dollars. The net credit received is two dollars and fifty cents per share. Therefore, the maximum risk, or maximum potential loss, is two dollars and fifty cents per share. The total margin requirement is this per-share risk multiplied by the total number of shares covered by the contracts. This approach reflects the fact that the long call option acts as a hedge, capping the otherwise unlimited risk of the short call position. Consequently, the margin required is not based on the unlimited risk of a naked call but on the capped, defined risk of the entire spread.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Amara, a registrant at a CIRO member firm, is reviewing a new account application for Mr. Chen, a 65-year-old retiree. Mr. Chen has a modest net worth, and his primary income sources are a government pension and a small corporate pension. His existing investment portfolio is held in a registered plan and is conservatively allocated. While he has read several books on investing, he has no prior experience trading derivatives. He explicitly states on his application that his sole objective is to “generate extra monthly income” by writing covered calls against his existing blue-chip stock positions. Based on her suitability obligations under CIRO rules, what is the most appropriate action for Amara to take regarding the level of options trading to approve for Mr. Chen’s account?
Correct
The most appropriate action is to approve the account for the most basic level of options trading, which involves only the purchasing of calls and puts. This decision is rooted in the registrant’s fundamental suitability obligation under the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) framework. The suitability analysis must holistically consider the client’s entire profile, not just their stated investment objective. In this scenario, the client is a retiree with a modest net worth and a reliance on fixed pension income, indicating a very low risk tolerance and limited capacity to absorb financial losses. Critically, he has zero practical experience with derivatives. While writing covered calls is often categorized as a conservative income strategy, it is not without risk. It exposes the writer to opportunity cost if the underlying stock price increases significantly and involves assignment risk, which can be complex for a novice to manage. Approving a writing strategy, even a covered one, for a client with no experience is imprudent. The most responsible course of action is a phased approach. By initially limiting the account to buying options, the client’s maximum risk on any single position is strictly limited to the premium paid. This allows the client to gain practical experience and a real-world understanding of options pricing and market movements in a controlled, low-risk environment. The registrant can then reassess and potentially upgrade the trading level once the client has demonstrated sufficient knowledge and understanding. This approach respects the client’s interest in derivatives while upholding the paramount duty to act in the client’s best interests.
Incorrect
The most appropriate action is to approve the account for the most basic level of options trading, which involves only the purchasing of calls and puts. This decision is rooted in the registrant’s fundamental suitability obligation under the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) framework. The suitability analysis must holistically consider the client’s entire profile, not just their stated investment objective. In this scenario, the client is a retiree with a modest net worth and a reliance on fixed pension income, indicating a very low risk tolerance and limited capacity to absorb financial losses. Critically, he has zero practical experience with derivatives. While writing covered calls is often categorized as a conservative income strategy, it is not without risk. It exposes the writer to opportunity cost if the underlying stock price increases significantly and involves assignment risk, which can be complex for a novice to manage. Approving a writing strategy, even a covered one, for a client with no experience is imprudent. The most responsible course of action is a phased approach. By initially limiting the account to buying options, the client’s maximum risk on any single position is strictly limited to the premium paid. This allows the client to gain practical experience and a real-world understanding of options pricing and market movements in a controlled, low-risk environment. The registrant can then reassess and potentially upgrade the trading level once the client has demonstrated sufficient knowledge and understanding. This approach respects the client’s interest in derivatives while upholding the paramount duty to act in the client’s best interests.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Assessment of Amara’s proposed options strategy for her account at a CIRO member firm reveals a plan to establish a short iron condor on Quantum Innovations Inc. (QII) stock. Her position will consist of selling one QII January 110 call, buying one QII January 115 call, selling one QII January 100 put, and buying one QII January 95 put, all for a net credit. According to CIRO regulations, how is the initial margin requirement for this specific four-legged strategy determined?
Correct
The margin requirement for a short iron condor is calculated based on its nature as a risk-defined strategy. The position consists of two vertical credit spreads: a bear call spread and a bull put spread. The maximum potential loss for this strategy is fixed and is equal to the difference between the strike prices of one of the vertical spreads, less the total net credit received from establishing all four legs of the position.
In this scenario, the strategy is:
1. Sell 1 QII Jan 110 call / Buy 1 QII Jan 115 call (a bear call spread)
2. Sell 1 QII Jan 100 put / Buy 1 QII Jan 95 put (a bull put spread)The width of the call spread is \( \$115 – \$110 = \$5 \).
The width of the put spread is \( \$100 – \$95 = \$5 \).Since the widths are identical, the maximum risk is the same on both sides. According to CIRO rules for recognized option strategies, the margin requirement for a short iron condor is the difference between the strike prices of either the call spread or the put spread. This amount represents the maximum possible loss per share before considering the premium received. The final margin requirement is this maximum loss amount reduced by the total net premium (credit) received for entering the entire four-legged position. The firm requires this margin to be held as collateral because if the underlying stock price moves outside the range of the short strikes at expiration, the position will incur a loss, up to this calculated maximum. The key principle is that because the position is protected on both the upside and the downside by the long options, the margin is not calculated as if it were two separate naked positions, but rather as a single, risk-defined strategy where the margin is based on the maximum potential loss.
Incorrect
The margin requirement for a short iron condor is calculated based on its nature as a risk-defined strategy. The position consists of two vertical credit spreads: a bear call spread and a bull put spread. The maximum potential loss for this strategy is fixed and is equal to the difference between the strike prices of one of the vertical spreads, less the total net credit received from establishing all four legs of the position.
In this scenario, the strategy is:
1. Sell 1 QII Jan 110 call / Buy 1 QII Jan 115 call (a bear call spread)
2. Sell 1 QII Jan 100 put / Buy 1 QII Jan 95 put (a bull put spread)The width of the call spread is \( \$115 – \$110 = \$5 \).
The width of the put spread is \( \$100 – \$95 = \$5 \).Since the widths are identical, the maximum risk is the same on both sides. According to CIRO rules for recognized option strategies, the margin requirement for a short iron condor is the difference between the strike prices of either the call spread or the put spread. This amount represents the maximum possible loss per share before considering the premium received. The final margin requirement is this maximum loss amount reduced by the total net premium (credit) received for entering the entire four-legged position. The firm requires this margin to be held as collateral because if the underlying stock price moves outside the range of the short strikes at expiration, the position will incur a loss, up to this calculated maximum. The key principle is that because the position is protected on both the upside and the downside by the long options, the margin is not calculated as if it were two separate naked positions, but rather as a single, risk-defined strategy where the margin is based on the maximum potential loss.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Anika, an experienced retail options trader, places a series of four orders in her margin account at a CIRO-regulated dealer member. The orders, for 10 contracts each on the same underlying stock with the same expiration, are executed simultaneously: a long January 80 call, a short January 80 put, a short January 90 call, and a long January 90 put. From the perspective of the dealer member’s compliance department reviewing the account activity, what is the most critical consideration regarding the margin treatment for this combination of positions under CIRO regulations?
Correct
The strategy described is a box spread, which is an arbitrage strategy combining a bull call spread and a bear put spread with the same strike prices and expiration date. In this case, Anika has established a long 80/90 box spread.
The components are:
1. Long 1 ABC Jan 80 call
2. Short 1 ABC Jan 80 put (This combination is a synthetic long stock position at $80)
3. Short 1 ABC Jan 90 call
4. Long 1 ABC Jan 90 put (This combination is a synthetic short stock position at $90)The total value of this position at expiration is guaranteed, regardless of the price of the underlying stock ABC. The value will be the difference between the strike prices.
Value at Expiration = Strike Price of Short Call – Strike Price of Long Call = \($90 – $80 = $10\).
Per contract, the value is \($10 \times 100 = $1,000\).
The net premium paid or received to establish the position determines the profit. Let’s assume a net debit of $9.80 per share is paid. The profit is then \($10.00 – $9.80 = $0.20\) per share, or $20 per box.From a regulatory and margin perspective, a box spread is viewed as a financing transaction. The trader pays a sum of money upfront (the net debit) to receive a larger, fixed sum of money at expiration. It is economically equivalent to buying a zero-coupon bond that matures on the option expiration date. Therefore, CIRO rules treat it as a loan. The primary concern for the dealer member is to ensure this position is margined correctly to reflect its nature as a secured loan. The margin requirement is not based on the risk of the underlying stock’s movement but on the future guaranteed payout. The minimum margin required for a long box spread is the aggregate exercise price difference, which is the \($1,000\) payout per contract. This amount must be held in the account to secure the position, ensuring that the obligations of the short legs can be met. This prevents the strategy from being used to circumvent standard borrowing and lending rules and ensures the financial integrity of the account.
Incorrect
The strategy described is a box spread, which is an arbitrage strategy combining a bull call spread and a bear put spread with the same strike prices and expiration date. In this case, Anika has established a long 80/90 box spread.
The components are:
1. Long 1 ABC Jan 80 call
2. Short 1 ABC Jan 80 put (This combination is a synthetic long stock position at $80)
3. Short 1 ABC Jan 90 call
4. Long 1 ABC Jan 90 put (This combination is a synthetic short stock position at $90)The total value of this position at expiration is guaranteed, regardless of the price of the underlying stock ABC. The value will be the difference between the strike prices.
Value at Expiration = Strike Price of Short Call – Strike Price of Long Call = \($90 – $80 = $10\).
Per contract, the value is \($10 \times 100 = $1,000\).
The net premium paid or received to establish the position determines the profit. Let’s assume a net debit of $9.80 per share is paid. The profit is then \($10.00 – $9.80 = $0.20\) per share, or $20 per box.From a regulatory and margin perspective, a box spread is viewed as a financing transaction. The trader pays a sum of money upfront (the net debit) to receive a larger, fixed sum of money at expiration. It is economically equivalent to buying a zero-coupon bond that matures on the option expiration date. Therefore, CIRO rules treat it as a loan. The primary concern for the dealer member is to ensure this position is margined correctly to reflect its nature as a secured loan. The margin requirement is not based on the risk of the underlying stock’s movement but on the future guaranteed payout. The minimum margin required for a long box spread is the aggregate exercise price difference, which is the \($1,000\) payout per contract. This amount must be held in the account to secure the position, ensuring that the obligations of the short legs can be met. This prevents the strategy from being used to circumvent standard borrowing and lending rules and ensures the financial integrity of the account.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Benoit, a portfolio manager for a Canadian institutional account, holds a substantial long position of 10,000 shares in ABC Inc. To mitigate short-term directional risk, he implements a delta-neutral hedge by writing an appropriate number of at-the-money ABC Inc. call options. Following the establishment of this hedge, the market experiences a sudden surge of positive news about ABC Inc., causing its stock price to increase dramatically. If Benoit does not rebalance his positions, what is the most probable resulting state of his portfolio’s delta?
Correct
Let’s analyze the delta of the portfolio. Initially, Benoit holds 10,000 shares of a stock. Each share of stock has a delta of +1. Therefore, the delta of his stock position is \(10,000 \text{ shares} \times (+1) = +10,000\).
To create a delta-neutral position, he needs to add a position with a delta of -10,000. He decides to short (write) call options. An at-the-money call option typically has a delta of approximately +0.50. By shorting the call, he creates a position with a delta of -0.50 per option.
The number of call options he needs to short is calculated as:
\[ \text{Number of options} = \frac{\text{Target Delta Change}}{\text{Delta per option}} = \frac{-10,000}{-0.50} = 20,000 \text{ options} \]
This corresponds to 200 standard option contracts (as 1 contract = 100 options). The initial delta of his options position is \(20,000 \times (-0.50) = -10,000\). The total portfolio delta is now \(+10,000 + (-10,000) = 0\), achieving delta neutrality.When the underlying stock price increases substantially, the call options move from being at-the-money to deep-in-the-money. The delta of a call option increases as the stock price rises and approaches +1.0 for deep-in-the-money calls. Let’s assume the new delta of the call options becomes +0.95.
Since Benoit is short these calls, the delta of his options position now becomes:
\[ \text{New Options Delta} = 20,000 \times (-0.95) = -19,000 \]
The delta of his stock position remains unchanged at +10,000. The new total delta of his portfolio is:
\[ \text{New Portfolio Delta} = +10,000 + (-19,000) = -9,000 \]
The portfolio, which was initially delta-neutral, has now become significantly delta-negative. This change occurs because the option’s delta is not static; its rate of change is measured by gamma. To maintain a delta-neutral hedge, a manager must continuously rebalance the position, a practice known as dynamic hedging. Failure to do so exposes the portfolio to directional risk as the underlying asset’s price fluctuates.Incorrect
Let’s analyze the delta of the portfolio. Initially, Benoit holds 10,000 shares of a stock. Each share of stock has a delta of +1. Therefore, the delta of his stock position is \(10,000 \text{ shares} \times (+1) = +10,000\).
To create a delta-neutral position, he needs to add a position with a delta of -10,000. He decides to short (write) call options. An at-the-money call option typically has a delta of approximately +0.50. By shorting the call, he creates a position with a delta of -0.50 per option.
The number of call options he needs to short is calculated as:
\[ \text{Number of options} = \frac{\text{Target Delta Change}}{\text{Delta per option}} = \frac{-10,000}{-0.50} = 20,000 \text{ options} \]
This corresponds to 200 standard option contracts (as 1 contract = 100 options). The initial delta of his options position is \(20,000 \times (-0.50) = -10,000\). The total portfolio delta is now \(+10,000 + (-10,000) = 0\), achieving delta neutrality.When the underlying stock price increases substantially, the call options move from being at-the-money to deep-in-the-money. The delta of a call option increases as the stock price rises and approaches +1.0 for deep-in-the-money calls. Let’s assume the new delta of the call options becomes +0.95.
Since Benoit is short these calls, the delta of his options position now becomes:
\[ \text{New Options Delta} = 20,000 \times (-0.95) = -19,000 \]
The delta of his stock position remains unchanged at +10,000. The new total delta of his portfolio is:
\[ \text{New Portfolio Delta} = +10,000 + (-19,000) = -9,000 \]
The portfolio, which was initially delta-neutral, has now become significantly delta-negative. This change occurs because the option’s delta is not static; its rate of change is measured by gamma. To maintain a delta-neutral hedge, a manager must continuously rebalance the position, a practice known as dynamic hedging. Failure to do so exposes the portfolio to directional risk as the underlying asset’s price fluctuates. -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
An assessment of a client’s margin account, held at a CIRO member firm, reveals a specific option strategy. The client, Léandre, has established a ratio call backspread by writing 1 QRS April 80 call for a premium of $6 and simultaneously purchasing 2 QRS April 85 calls for a premium of $2.50 each. This strategy was established for an overall net credit. Based on CIRO margin regulations for equity options, what is the fundamental basis for determining the minimum initial margin that must be held for this position?
Correct
The calculation for the margin requirement is based on the net credit received from establishing the position.
The position is:
Short 1 QRS April 80 call for a premium of $6.00 per share.
Long 2 QRS April 85 calls for a premium of $2.50 per share each.First, calculate the total premium received from the short call:
Premium Received = \( \$6.00 \times 100 \) shares/contract = \( \$600 \)Next, calculate the total premium paid for the long calls:
Premium Paid = \( 2 \times \$2.50 \times 100 \) shares/contract = \( \$500 \)Then, calculate the net credit for the entire position:
Net Credit = Premium Received – Premium Paid = \( \$600 – \$500 = \$100 \)According to Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) rules for a ratio call backspread (where more calls are bought than sold, and the long calls have a higher strike price) established for a net credit, the minimum margin requirement is equal to the net credit received. Therefore, the minimum margin requirement is $100.
This specific strategy is known as a ratio call backspread. It is a bullish volatility strategy with limited risk and unlimited profit potential. The risk is limited because the second long call provides unlimited upside protection against the single short call. The maximum loss occurs if the price of the underlying stock is exactly at the strike price of the long calls at expiration. The CIRO margin rules for complex spreads like this are designed to reflect the actual risk profile of the position. For an uncovered short call, the margin would be significantly higher because the risk is unlimited. However, in this ratio spread, the long calls serve to cap the risk. The rule requires that the initial net credit received from putting on the position be maintained as the margin. This amount serves as a cushion against the maximum potential loss on the spread. It is crucial for a registrant to distinguish this specific spread margin rule from the general formula for uncovered options, as applying the wrong rule would lead to an incorrect assessment of the account’s compliance with minimum margin requirements.
Incorrect
The calculation for the margin requirement is based on the net credit received from establishing the position.
The position is:
Short 1 QRS April 80 call for a premium of $6.00 per share.
Long 2 QRS April 85 calls for a premium of $2.50 per share each.First, calculate the total premium received from the short call:
Premium Received = \( \$6.00 \times 100 \) shares/contract = \( \$600 \)Next, calculate the total premium paid for the long calls:
Premium Paid = \( 2 \times \$2.50 \times 100 \) shares/contract = \( \$500 \)Then, calculate the net credit for the entire position:
Net Credit = Premium Received – Premium Paid = \( \$600 – \$500 = \$100 \)According to Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) rules for a ratio call backspread (where more calls are bought than sold, and the long calls have a higher strike price) established for a net credit, the minimum margin requirement is equal to the net credit received. Therefore, the minimum margin requirement is $100.
This specific strategy is known as a ratio call backspread. It is a bullish volatility strategy with limited risk and unlimited profit potential. The risk is limited because the second long call provides unlimited upside protection against the single short call. The maximum loss occurs if the price of the underlying stock is exactly at the strike price of the long calls at expiration. The CIRO margin rules for complex spreads like this are designed to reflect the actual risk profile of the position. For an uncovered short call, the margin would be significantly higher because the risk is unlimited. However, in this ratio spread, the long calls serve to cap the risk. The rule requires that the initial net credit received from putting on the position be maintained as the margin. This amount serves as a cushion against the maximum potential loss on the spread. It is crucial for a registrant to distinguish this specific spread margin rule from the general formula for uncovered options, as applying the wrong rule would lead to an incorrect assessment of the account’s compliance with minimum margin requirements.