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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
In the governance structure, the directors should have ongoing training, the program should include all the statements below, except?
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The program training of directors should include complex products, services, lines of business, and risks that have a significant impact on the covered bank; laws, regulations, and supervisory requirements applicable to the covered bank; and other topics identified by the board of directors.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
In recordkeeping, what does section 326 of the USA PATRIOT Act requires in a financial institution?
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Section 326 of the USA PATRIOT Act requires that at the account level the financial institution must retain the identifying information for five years after the account is closed or, in the case of credit, five years after the account becomes dormant.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
In Regulatory Expectation of risk governance, the US criminal code states which of the following?
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The US Criminal Code states that the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act is a United States law passed in 1977 that prohibits U.S. firms and individuals from paying bribes to foreign officials in furtherance of a business deal. The FCPA places no minimum amount for a punishment of a bribery payment.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
What are the other business processes that are related to the implementation of the AML/CTF risk governance framework?
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“The other business processes that are related to the implementation of the AML/CTF risk governance framework are transaction monitoring, sanction screening investigation, alert management, model risk management, currency transaction governance, and rapid response team.”
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Under the New York Department of Financial Services (NYDFS), Rule 504 requires an annual certification that the risk-based transaction monitoring and sanctions screening operations are “reasonably designed”. What does it include for emphasis?
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Rule 504 states, that they maintain a sanctions screening application that is designed for the purpose of interdicting transactions that are prohibited by OFAC. It also covers typologies, wherein, each typology is identified with detail within the risk assessment. Lastly, its emphasis on data management.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Which of the following outlines the standards by which financial institutions adhere to risk regulations and guidance?
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The risk management’s regulatory expectations outline the standards by which financial institutions adhere to risk regulations and guidance.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which appendix of the OCC Guidelines, established heightened standards for certain large insured national banks, insured federal savings associations, and insured federal branches and is adopted under Section 39 of the Federal Insurance Deposit Act (FDIA)?
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It is under 12 CFR 30 Appendix D where it established heightened standards for certain large insured national banks, insured federal savings associations, and insured federal branches. Adopted under Section 39 of the Federal Insurance Deposit Act (FDIA)
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
In what country does Corruption of Foreign Public Officials Act (CFPOA) applies to persons and companies and makes it a criminal offense for persons or companies to bribe foreign public officials to obtain or retain a business advantage?
Correct
Incorrect
In Canada Corruption of Foreign Public Officials Act (CFPOA) applies to persons and companies and makes it a criminal offense for persons or companies to bribe foreign public officials to obtain or retain a business advantage.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
This country’s Crime Act provides for the confiscation or civil recovery of the proceeds from crime and contains the principal money laundering legislation. What country is this?
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The Proceeds of Crime Act in UK provides for the confiscation or civil recovery of the proceeds from crime and contains the principal money laundering legislation.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
“Which of the following has a major influence on the payments ecosystem and infrastructure for banks, FinTechs, and businesses, using payment data for the benefits of consumers?”
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PSD2 has a major influence on the payments ecosystem and infrastructure for banks, FinTechs and businesses, using payment data for the benefits of consumers.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
All of the following ar benefits of PSD2, except?
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The following are the direct and practical benefits of PSD2: increasing consumer confidence in e-commerce.; Mitigating all risks associated with online fraud.; Increasing the conversion rate by promoting the introduction of new payment methods.; and Providing greater freedom to merchants and customers regarding the means of payment.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
What does the GDPR particularly do?
Correct
GDPR applies to all companies that process and hold the personal data of data subjects residing in the European Union, regardless of their location.
Incorrect
GDPR applies to all companies that process and hold the personal data of data subjects residing in the European Union, regardless of their location.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
The GDPR is also very challenging to implement but it is producing non-neglectable benefits, such as:
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The non-neglectable benefits of GDPR are improving business-customer confidence by creating an environment that puts data protection at the heart of the business and protects people’s ability to control their data.; Encouraging innovation by providing a higher level of flexibility without harming the rights of individuals to data protection.; Reducing transaction costs thanks to the application of a single law at the pan-European level. and Enhancing EU data processors’ cybersecurity by creating a secure international exchange environment.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
The following are all “Wolfsberg Frequently Asked Questions on Risk Assessments for Money Laundering, Sanctions and Bribery & Corruption” advantages of conducting a risk assessment, except?
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The advantages include Make informed decisions about risk appetite and implementation of control efforts, allocation of resources and technology expenditures.; Assists management in ensuring that resources and priorities are aligned to risks.; Ensures senior management is made aware of the key risks, control gaps, and remediation efforts.; and Develop risk mitigation strategies, including applicable internal controls to lower residual risk exposure to an acceptable level.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
In regulatory expectations, ‘legal person” is defined as which of the following statements?
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A ‘legal person’ means any entity having legal personality under the applicable law, except for states or public bodies in the exercise of state authority and for public international organizations.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
There is a 5 step approach to risk assessment, what is step 5?
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Step 5 in the approach risk assessment is to practice refreshing oneself with the risk assessment annually.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
All of the following are key factors that define a partially effective internal control, except?
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A partially effective internal control is the control requires some enhancement to be fully effective and is not performed consistently.; The control mitigates a significant portion of the AML risk with some breakdowns.; The control is partially manual and some breakdowns have occurred.; Controls are too new to be evaluated.; Components of management oversight, reporting, and/or escalation processes are new or in process of implementation.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
There are key factors that define effective internal control, all of these are key factors, except?
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The key factors are AML/CTF risks that are adequately incorporated into the development of new products.; There is no history of significant control failures within the previous five years.; The front line unit management anticipates and addresses changing AML/CTF compliance and takes prompt and effective action.; Independent reviews by the supervisory agency and Internal Audit have not found any significant issues in the previous five years.; and The front line unit has sufficient resources to meet its compliance obligations.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
What is the purpose of risk and control self-assessment?
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The risk and control self-assessment’s purpose is to evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls in the context of mitigating the inherent risks in the overall business environment.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
The risk and control self-assessment in the risk governance framework will imply all of the following except?
Correct
It will support compliance with the local laws and regulations, represent a consistent approach and methodology for identifying the operational risks and the effectiveness of internal controls, and provide a context for the remediation and enhancement of the control environment.
Incorrect
It will support compliance with the local laws and regulations, represent a consistent approach and methodology for identifying the operational risks and the effectiveness of internal controls, and provide a context for the remediation and enhancement of the control environment.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Many financial institutions have established a data management business function, which is supported by which of the following?
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In data governance, the best practice of many financial institutions is to establish a data management business function which should be supported by data management standards and procedures, Data integrity standards including reconciliation and SLAs, Data privacy policy, Data security policy including data classification, Data security officer, Data retention standards, Disaster recovery procedures. and Metrics and reporting.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
What does a data management function for a financial institution?
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The data management function manages all aspects of internal and external data transmissions for the financial institution.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
The data transmission for financial institutions has a standard and should include the requirements of which of the following?
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The data transmission for financial institutions has a standard and should include the requirement for record counts, reconciliations, and encryption.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
File attendance controls in data transmission include all of the following, except?
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The file attendance controls include identifying duplicate transmissions, identifying late transmissions, ensuring that transmission errors are corrected promptly, and checking the transmission reconciliation reports.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
What are the elements of data integrity?
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The elements of data integrity are accuracy, completeness, timeliness, and authorized.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Training faculty is best defined as which of the following?
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There should be a formal qualification process developed for the creation of a training faculty where candidates are assessed on their financial crimes and risk management knowledge, and their personnel and presentation skills.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
What is included in an annual financial crimes training?
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It includes KYC, sanctions, terrorist financing, Bank Secrecy Act, USA PATRIOT Act, local law and regulatory requirements, the results of recent regulatory examinations, enforcement actions, and audit reports.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
In communication and training, what topics can be included in the training courses?
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Training courses can be internal audit issues, examples of new and high risk products, and customers & geographies.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Who of the following should be screened periodically?
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Names that should be screened periodically include employees, consultants and third-party service providers such as vendors, landlords, and tenants of properties owned by the financial institution.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
The following statements are the three basic levels of a terrorist organization, except?
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The three basic levels of terrorist organization are, first, headquarters, where the core organization has a defined leadership structure, regional franchises of the core organization have leadership structures which may or may not be directly aligned with the core organization and th grassroots operatives, likely inspired by, or led by, the regional franchises or the core organization.